Month: May 2015

Plane wave solution directly from Maxwell’s equations

May 6, 2015 math and physics play , , , ,

[Click here for a PDF of this post with nicer formatting]

Here’s a problem that I thought was fun, an exercise for the reader to show that the plane wave solution to Maxwell’s equations can be found with ease directly from Maxwell’s equations. This is in contrast to the what seems like the usual method of first showing that Maxwell’s equations imply wave equations for the fields, and then solving those wave equations.

Problem. \( \xcap \) oriented plane wave electric field ([1] ex. 4.1)

A uniform plane wave having only an \( x \) component of the electric field is traveling in the \( + z \) direction in an unbounded lossless, source-0free region. Using Maxwell’s equations write expressions for the electric and corresponding magnetic field intensities.

Answer

The phasor form of Maxwell’s equations for a source free region are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}
\spacegrad \cross \BE = -j \omega \BB
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}
\spacegrad \cross \BH = j \omega \BD
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:80}
\spacegrad \cdot \BD = 0
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:100}
\spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0.
\end{equation}

Since \( \BE = \xcap E(z) \), the magnetic field follows from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:120}
-j \omega \BB
= \spacegrad \cross \BE
=
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
E & 0 & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
\ycap \partial_z E(z)
– \zcap \partial_y E(z),
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140}
\BB =
-\inv{j \omega} \partial_z E.
\end{equation}

This is constrained by \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:160}
j \omega \epsilon \xcap E
=
\inv{\mu} \spacegrad \cross \BB
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
0 & \partial_z E & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\lr{
-\xcap \partial_{z z} E
+ \zcap \partial_x \partial_z E
}
\end{equation}

Since \( \partial_x \partial_z E = \partial_z \lr{ \partial_x E } = \partial_z \inv{\epsilon} \spacegrad \cdot \BD = \partial_z 0 \), this means

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:180}
\partial_{zz} E = -\omega^2 \epsilon\mu E = -k^2 E.
\end{equation}

This is the usual starting place that we use to show that the plane wave has an exponential form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:200}
\BE(z) =
\xcap
\lr{
E_{+} e^{-j k z}
+
E_{-} e^{j k z}
}.
\end{equation}

The magnetic field from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140} is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:220}
\BB
= \frac{j}{\omega} \lr{ -j k E_{+} e^{-j k z} + j k E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} },
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:240}
\BH
= \inv{\mu c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{\eta} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }.
\end{equation}

A solution requires zero divergence for the magnetic field, but that can be seen to be the case by inspection.

References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics. Wiley New York, 1989.

Coupled wave equation in cylindrical coordinates

May 5, 2015 math and physics play , ,

[Click here for a PDF of this post with nicer formatting]

In [1], for a sourceless configuration, it is noted that the electric field equations \( \spacegrad^2 \BE = -\beta^2 \BE \) have the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:20}
\spacegrad^2 E_\rho – \frac{E_\rho}{\rho^2} – \frac{2}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{E_\phi} = -\beta^2 E_\rho
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:60}
\spacegrad^2 E_\phi – \frac{E_\phi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{E_\rho} = -\beta^2 E_\phi
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:80}
\spacegrad^2 E_z = -\beta^2 E_z,
\end{equation}

where

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:100}
\spacegrad^2 \psi =
\inv{\rho} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{\psi}} + \inv{\rho^2}\PDSq{\phi}{\psi} + \PDSq{z}{\psi}.
\end{equation}

He applies separation of variables to the last equation, ending up with the usual Bessel function solution, but the first two coupled equations are dismissed as coupled and difficult. It looks like separation of variables works for this too, but we have to prep the system slightly by writing \( \psi = E_\rho + j E_\phi \), which gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:120}
\spacegrad^2 \psi – \frac{\psi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{\psi} = -\beta^2 \psi,
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:140}
\inv{\rho} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{\psi}} + \inv{\rho^2}\PDSq{\phi}{\psi} + \PDSq{z}{\psi}
– \frac{\psi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{\psi} = -\beta^2 \psi.
\end{equation}

With a separation of variables substitution \( \psi = f(\rho) g(\phi) h(z) \) this gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:160}
\inv{\rho f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{\rho^2 g}\PDSq{\phi}{g}
+ \inv{z} \PDSq{z}{h}
– \frac{1}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2 g} \PD{\phi}{g} = -\beta^2.
\end{equation}

Assuming a solution for the function \( h \) of

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:180}
\inv{z} \PDSq{z}{h} = -\alpha^2,
\end{equation}

the PDE is reduced to an equation in two functions

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:200}
\inv{\rho f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{\rho^2 g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g}
+ \beta^2 -\alpha^2
– \frac{1}{\rho^2}
= 0,
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:220}
\frac{\rho}{f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g}
+ \lr{ \beta^2 -\alpha^2 }\rho^2
= 1.
\end{equation}

With the term in \( g \) having only \( \phi \) dependence, we can assume

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:240}
\inv{g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g} = 1 – \gamma^2,
\end{equation}

for

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:260}
\frac{\rho}{f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
– \gamma^2
+ \lr{ \beta^2 -\alpha^2 }\rho^2
= 0.
\end{equation}

I’m not sure off hand if these can be solved in known special functions, especially since the constants in the mix are complex.

References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics, volume 20. Wiley New York, 1989.

Tangential and normal field components

May 4, 2015 ece1229 , , , , , , , , , , , , ,

[Click here for a PDF of this post with nicer formatting]

The integral forms of Maxwell’s equations can be used to derive relations for the tangential and normal field components to the sources. These relations were mentioned in class. It’s a little late, but lets go over the derivation. This isn’t all review from first year electromagnetism since we are now using a magnetic source modifications of Maxwell’s equations.

The derivation below follows that of [1] closely, but I am trying it myself to ensure that I understand the assumptions.

The two infinitesimally thin pillboxes of fig. 1, and fig. 2 are used in the argument.

pillboxForTangentialFieldsFig1

fig. 2: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

pillboxForNormalFieldsFig2

fig. 1: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

Maxwell’s equations with both magnetic and electric sources are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:20}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = -\PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:40}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:60}
\spacegrad \cdot \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} = \rho_\textrm{e}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:80}
\spacegrad \cdot \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} = \rho_\textrm{m}.
\end{equation}

After application of Stokes’ and the divergence theorems Maxwell’s equations have the integral form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl = -\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:120}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} \cdot d\Bl = \int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} }
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:160}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{m}\,dV.
\end{equation}

Maxwell-Faraday equation

First consider one of the loop integrals, like \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}. For an infinestismal loop, that integral is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180}
\begin{aligned}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl
&\approx
\mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x \Delta x
+ \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x \Delta x
– \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
– \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2} \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(2)}} \Delta x \Delta y
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(1)}} \Delta x \Delta y.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We let \( \Delta y \rightarrow 0 \) which kills off all but the first difference term.

The RHS of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180} is approximately

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:200}
-\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }
\approx
– \Delta x \Delta y \lr{ \PD{t}{\mathcal{B}_z} + \mathcal{M}_z }.
\end{equation}

If the magnetic field contribution is assumed to be small in comparison to the magnetic current (i.e. infinite magnetic conductance), and if a linear magnetic current source of the form is also assumed

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:220}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \cdot \zcap} \zcap \Delta y,
\end{equation}

then the Maxwell-Faraday equation takes the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240}
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
\approx
– \Delta x \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap.
\end{equation}

While \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \) may have components that are not normal to the interface, the surface current need only have a normal component, since only that component contributes to the surface integral.

The coordinate expression of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240} can be written as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:260}
– \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap
=
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cdot \lr{ \ycap \cross \zcap }
=
\lr{ \lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ycap } \cdot \zcap.
\end{equation}

This is satisfied when

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:280}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s,
}
\end{equation}

where \( \ncap \) is the normal between the interfaces. I’d failed to understand when reading this derivation initially, how the \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} \) contribution was killed off. i.e. If the vanishing area in the surface integral kills off the \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} \) contribution, why do we have a \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \) contribution left. The key to this is understanding that this magnetic current is considered to be confined very closely to the surface getting larger as \( \Delta y \) gets smaller.

Also note that the units of \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \) are volts/meter like the electric field (not volts/squared-meter like \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \).)

Ampere’s law

As above, assume a linear electric surface current density of the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:300}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} \cdot \ncap} \ncap \Delta y,
\end{equation}

in units of amperes/meter (not amperes/meter-squared like \( \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} \).)

To apply the arguments above to Ampere’s law, only the sign needs to be adjusted

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:290}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s.
}
\end{equation}

Gauss’s law

Using the cylindrical pillbox surface with radius \( \Delta r \), height \( \Delta y \), and top and bottom surface areas \( \Delta A = \pi \lr{\Delta r}^2 \), the LHS of Gauss’s law \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140} expands to

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320}
\begin{aligned}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
&\approx
\mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y \Delta A
+ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{D}^{(1)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y \Delta A \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

As with the Stokes integrals above it is assumed that the height is infinestimal with respect to the radial dimension. Letting that height \( \Delta y \rightarrow 0 \) kills off the radially directed contributions of the flux through the sidewalls.

The RHS expands to approximately

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340}
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV
\approx
\Delta A \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.
\end{equation}

Define a highly localized surface current density (coulombs/meter-squared) as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:360}
\sigma_\textrm{e} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.
\end{equation}

Equating \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340} with \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320} gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:380}
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A
=
\Delta A \sigma_\textrm{e},
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:400}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{e}.
}
\end{equation}

Gauss’s law for magnetism

The same argument can be applied to the magnetic flux. Define a highly localized magnetic surface current density (webers/meter-squared) as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:440}
\sigma_\textrm{m} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{m},
\end{equation}

yielding the boundary relation

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:420}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{m}.
}
\end{equation}

References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics, volume 20, chapter Time-varying and time-harmonic electromagnetic fields. Wiley New York, 1989.

Shipping with UPS from US to Canada. Prepare to be screwed.

May 3, 2015 Incoherent ramblings , , ,

UPS has a nice little scam rigged up with COD fees for customs handling.  Check out this bill:

 

For reasons unknown, Canada customs decided that I should have to pay 11 cents on items I’d been sent after loaning them to a US resident.

Observe that because UPS paid that 11 cents fee at the border, they tacked on their own $30 brokerage fee (plus GST).

I can’t imagine that this is legal.  If it is legal, I’d recommend people boycott UPS as a shipping company when sending from the USA to Canada.  They basically have found a way to double charge for the package, once explicitly to the sender, and once to the receiver.  However, this isn’t the first time I’ve been charged handling fees of this sort.  I think the previous time it was FedEx, and they charged something like $15-$20 for paying a couple dollar customs fee.

If all the big shipping companies are playing this sort of dirty game, there are not many possibilities for boycotting them.  I’d not be surprised at all if somebody in Canada customs management is getting a kickback from UPS and friends to facilitate addition of trivial fees that these companies can use to justify their brokerage fees.

%d bloggers like this: