## Transverse gauge

Jackson [1] has an interesting presentation of the transverse gauge. I’d like to walk through the details of this, but first want to translate the preliminaries to SI units (if I had the 3rd edition I’d not have to do this translation step).

### Gauge freedom

The starting point is noting that $$\spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0$$ the magnetic field can be expressed as a curl

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:20}

Faraday’s law now takes the form
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:40}
\begin{aligned}
0
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{\BB} \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{} \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \BE + \PD{t}{\BA} }.
\end{aligned}

Because this curl is zero, the interior sum can be expressed as a gradient

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:60}
\BE + \PD{t}{\BA} \equiv -\spacegrad \Phi.

This can now be substituted into the remaining two Maxwell’s equations.

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:80}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \BD &= \rho_v \\
\spacegrad \cross \BH &= \BJ + \PD{t}{\BD} \\
\end{aligned}

For Gauss’s law, in simple media, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:140}
\begin{aligned}
\rho_v
&=
&=
\end{aligned}

For simple media again, the Ampere-Maxwell equation is

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:100}
\inv{\mu} \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = \BJ + \epsilon \PD{t}{} \lr{ -\spacegrad \Phi – \PD{t}{\BA} }.

Expanding $$\spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = -\spacegrad^2 \BA + \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA }$$ gives
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:120}

Maxwell’s equations are now reduced to
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:180}
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA + \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi}} – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} &= -\mu \BJ \\
\end{aligned}
}

There are two obvious constraints that we can impose
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:200}
\spacegrad \cdot \BA – \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi} = 0,

or
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:220}

The first constraint is the Lorentz gauge, which I’ve played with previously. It happens to be really nice in a relativistic context since, in vacuum with a four-vector potential $$A = (\Phi/c, \BA)$$, that is a requirement that the four-divergence of the four-potential vanishes ($$\partial_\mu A^\mu = 0$$).

### Transverse gauge

Jackson identifies the latter constraint as the transverse gauge, which I’m less familiar with. With this gauge selection, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:260}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} = -\mu \BJ + \epsilon\mu \spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:280}

What’s not obvious is the fact that the irrotational (zero curl) contribution due to $$\Phi$$ in \ref{eqn:transverseGauge:260} cancels the corresponding irrotational term from the current. Jackson uses a transverse and longitudinal decomposition of the current, related to the Helmholtz theorem to allude to this.

That decomposition follows from expanding $$\spacegrad^2 J/R$$ in two ways using the delta function $$-4 \pi \delta(\Bx – \Bx’) = \spacegrad^2 1/R$$ representation, as well as directly

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:300}
\begin{aligned}
– 4 \pi \BJ(\Bx)
&=
\int \spacegrad^2 \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \spacegrad \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \spacegrad \wedge \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \BJ(\Bx’) \cdot \spacegrad’ \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’

\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
}
\end{aligned}

The first term can be converted to a surface integral

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:320}
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
=
\int d\BA’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}},

so provided the currents are either localized or $$\Abs{\BJ}/R \rightarrow 0$$ on an infinite sphere, we can make the identification

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:340}
\BJ(\Bx)
=
+
\spacegrad \cross \spacegrad \cross \inv{4 \pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\equiv
\BJ_l +
\BJ_t,

where $$\spacegrad \cross \BJ_l = 0$$ (irrotational, or longitudinal), whereas $$\spacegrad \cdot \BJ_t = 0$$ (solenoidal or transverse). The irrotational property is clear from inspection, and the transverse property can be verified readily

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:360}
\begin{aligned}
&=
&=
&=
&= 0.
\end{aligned}

Since

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:380}
\Phi(\Bx, t)
=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \int \frac{\rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,

we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:400}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{\partial_t \rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{-\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\BJ_l}{\epsilon}.
\end{aligned}

This means that the Ampere-Maxwell equation takes the form

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:420}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA}
= -\mu \BJ + \mu \BJ_l
= -\mu \BJ_t.

This justifies the transverse in the label transverse gauge.

# References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Corollaries to Stokes and Divergence theorems

In [1] a few problems are set to prove some variations of Stokes theorem. He gives some cool tricks to prove each one using just the classic 3D Stokes and divergence theorems. We can also do them directly from the more general Stokes theorem $$\int d^k \Bx \cdot (\spacegrad \wedge F) = \oint d^{k-1} \Bx \cdot F$$.

## Question: Stokes theorem on scalar function. ([1] pr. 1.60a)

Prove
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:20}
\int \spacegrad T dV = \oint T d\Ba.

The direct way to prove this is to apply Stokes theorem

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:80}
\int d^3 \Bx \cdot (\spacegrad \wedge T) = \oint d^2 \Bx \cdot T

Here $$d^3 \Bx = d\Bx_1 \wedge d\Bx_2 \wedge d\Bx_3$$, a pseudoscalar (trivector) volume element, and the wedge and dot products take their most general meanings. For $$k$$-blade $$F$$, and $$k’$$-blade $$F’$$, that is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:100}
\begin{aligned}
F \wedge F’ &= \gpgrade{F F’}{k+k’} \\
F \cdot F’ &= \gpgrade{F F’}{\Abs{k-k’}}
\end{aligned}

With $$d^3\Bx = I dV$$, and $$d^2 \Bx = I \ncap dA = I d\Ba$$, we have

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:120}
\int I dV \spacegrad T = \oint I d\Ba T.

Cancelling the factors of $$I$$ proves the result.

Griffith’s trick to do this was to let $$\Bv = \Bc T$$, where $$\Bc$$ is a constant. For this, the divergence theorem integral is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:160}
\begin{aligned}
\int dV \spacegrad \cdot (\Bc T)
&=
\int dV \Bc \cdot \spacegrad T \\
&=
\Bc \cdot \int dV \spacegrad T \\
&=
\oint d\Ba \cdot (\Bc T) \\
&=
\Bc \cdot \oint d\Ba T.
\end{aligned}

This is true for any constant $$\Bc$$, so is also true for the unit vectors. This allows for summing projections in each of the unit directions

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:180}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \int dV \spacegrad T } \\
&=
\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \oint d\Ba T } \\
&=
\oint d\Ba T.
\end{aligned}

## Question: ([1] pr. 1.60b)

Prove
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:40}
\int \spacegrad \cross \Bv dV = -\oint \Bv \cross d\Ba.

This also follows directly from the general Stokes theorem

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:200}
\int d^3 \Bx \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge \Bv } = \oint d^2 \Bx \cdot \Bv

The volume integrand is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:220}
\begin{aligned}
d^3 \Bx \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge \Bv }
&=
&=
\end{aligned}

and the surface integrand is
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:240}
\begin{aligned}
d^2 \Bx \cdot \Bv
&=
\gpgradeone{ I d\Ba \Bv } \\
&=
\gpgradeone{ I (d\Ba \wedge \Bv) } \\
&=
I^2 (d\Ba \cross \Bv) \\
&=
-d\Ba \cross \Bv \\
&=
\Bv \cross d\Ba.
\end{aligned}

Plugging these into \ref{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:200} proves the result.

Griffiths trick for the same is to apply the divergence theorem to $$\Bv \cross \Bc$$. Such a volume integral is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:260}
\begin{aligned}
\int dV \spacegrad \cdot (\Bv \cross \Bc)
&=
\int dV \Bc \cdot (\spacegrad \cross \Bv) \\
&=
\Bc \cdot \int dV \spacegrad \cross \Bv.
\end{aligned}

This must equal
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:280}
\begin{aligned}
\oint d\Ba \cdot (\Bv \cross \Bc)
&=
\Bc \cdot \oint d\Ba \cross \Bv \\
&=
-\Bc \cdot \oint \Bv \cross d\Ba
\end{aligned}

Again, assembling projections, we have
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:300}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \int dV \spacegrad \cross \Bv } \\
&=
-\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \oint \Bv \cross d\Ba } \\
&=
-\oint \Bv \cross d\Ba.
\end{aligned}

## Question: ([1] pr. 1.60e)

Prove
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:60}
\int \spacegrad T \cross d\Ba = -\oint T d\Bl.

This one follows from
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:320}
\int d^2 \Bx \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge T } = \oint d^1 \Bx \cdot T.

The surface integrand can be written
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:340}
\begin{aligned}
d^2 \Bx \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge T }
&=
&=
I (d\Ba \wedge \spacegrad T ) \\
&=
I^2 ( d\Ba \cross \spacegrad T ) \\
&=
\end{aligned}

The line integrand is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:360}
d^1 \Bx \cdot T = d^1 \Bx T.

Given a two parameter representation of the surface area element $$d^2 \Bx = d\Bx_1 \wedge d\Bx_2$$, the line element representation is
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:380}
\begin{aligned}
d^1 \Bx
&= (\Bx_1 \wedge d\Bx_2) \cdot \Bx^1 + (d\Bx_1 \wedge \Bx_2) \cdot \Bx^2 \\
&= -d\Bx_2 + d\Bx_1,
\end{aligned}

giving

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:400}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\int
-\evalbar{\lr{ \PD{u_2}{\Bx} T }}{\Delta u_1} du_2
+\evalbar{\lr{ \PD{u_1}{\Bx} T }}{\Delta u_2} du_1 \\
&=
-\oint d\Bl T,
\end{aligned}

or
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:420}
=
-\oint d\Bl T.

Griffiths trick for the same is to use $$\Bv = \Bc T$$ for constant $$\Bc$$ in (the usual 3D) Stokes’ theorem. That is

\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:440}
\begin{aligned}
\int d\Ba \cdot (\spacegrad \cross (\Bc T))
&=
\Bc \cdot \int d\Ba \cross \spacegrad T \\
&=
-\Bc \cdot \int \spacegrad T \cross d\Ba \\
&=
\oint d\Bl \cdot (\Bc T) \\
&=
\Bc \cdot \oint d\Bl T.
\end{aligned}

Again assembling projections we have
\label{eqn:stokesCorollariesGriffiths:460}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \int \spacegrad T \cross d\Ba} \\
&=
-\sum \Be_k \lr{ \Be_k \cdot \oint d\Bl T } \\
&=
-\oint d\Bl T.
\end{aligned}

# References

[1] David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

## Tangential and normal field components

The integral forms of Maxwell’s equations can be used to derive relations for the tangential and normal field components to the sources. These relations were mentioned in class. It’s a little late, but lets go over the derivation. This isn’t all review from first year electromagnetism since we are now using a magnetic source modifications of Maxwell’s equations.

The derivation below follows that of [1] closely, but I am trying it myself to ensure that I understand the assumptions.

The two infinitesimally thin pillboxes of fig. 1, and fig. 2 are used in the argument.

fig. 2: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

fig. 1: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

Maxwell’s equations with both magnetic and electric sources are

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:20}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = -\PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:40}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:60}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:80}

After application of Stokes’ and the divergence theorems Maxwell’s equations have the integral form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl = -\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:120}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} \cdot d\Bl = \int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} }

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:160}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{m}\,dV.

First consider one of the loop integrals, like \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}. For an infinestismal loop, that integral is

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180}
\begin{aligned}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl
&\approx
\mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x \Delta x
+ \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x \Delta x
– \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
– \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2} \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(2)}} \Delta x \Delta y
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(1)}} \Delta x \Delta y.
\end{aligned}

We let $$\Delta y \rightarrow 0$$ which kills off all but the first difference term.

The RHS of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180} is approximately

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:200}
-\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }
\approx
– \Delta x \Delta y \lr{ \PD{t}{\mathcal{B}_z} + \mathcal{M}_z }.

If the magnetic field contribution is assumed to be small in comparison to the magnetic current (i.e. infinite magnetic conductance), and if a linear magnetic current source of the form is also assumed

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:220}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \cdot \zcap} \zcap \Delta y,

then the Maxwell-Faraday equation takes the form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240}
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
\approx
– \Delta x \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap.

While $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$ may have components that are not normal to the interface, the surface current need only have a normal component, since only that component contributes to the surface integral.

The coordinate expression of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240} can be written as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:260}
– \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap
=
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cdot \lr{ \ycap \cross \zcap }
=
\lr{ \lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ycap } \cdot \zcap.

This is satisfied when

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:280}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s,
}

where $$\ncap$$ is the normal between the interfaces. I’d failed to understand when reading this derivation initially, how the $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}$$ contribution was killed off. i.e. If the vanishing area in the surface integral kills off the $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}$$ contribution, why do we have a $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$ contribution left. The key to this is understanding that this magnetic current is considered to be confined very closely to the surface getting larger as $$\Delta y$$ gets smaller.

Also note that the units of $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s$$ are volts/meter like the electric field (not volts/squared-meter like $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$.)

## Ampere’s law

As above, assume a linear electric surface current density of the form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:300}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} \cdot \ncap} \ncap \Delta y,

in units of amperes/meter (not amperes/meter-squared like $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}$$.)

To apply the arguments above to Ampere’s law, only the sign needs to be adjusted

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:290}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s.
}

## Gauss’s law

Using the cylindrical pillbox surface with radius $$\Delta r$$, height $$\Delta y$$, and top and bottom surface areas $$\Delta A = \pi \lr{\Delta r}^2$$, the LHS of Gauss’s law \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140} expands to

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320}
\begin{aligned}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
&\approx
\mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y \Delta A
+ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{D}^{(1)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y \Delta A \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A.
\end{aligned}

As with the Stokes integrals above it is assumed that the height is infinestimal with respect to the radial dimension. Letting that height $$\Delta y \rightarrow 0$$ kills off the radially directed contributions of the flux through the sidewalls.

The RHS expands to approximately

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340}
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV
\approx
\Delta A \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.

Define a highly localized surface current density (coulombs/meter-squared) as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:360}
\sigma_\textrm{e} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.

Equating \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340} with \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320} gives

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:380}
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A
=
\Delta A \sigma_\textrm{e},

or

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:400}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{e}.
}

## Gauss’s law for magnetism

The same argument can be applied to the magnetic flux. Define a highly localized magnetic surface current density (webers/meter-squared) as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:440}
\sigma_\textrm{m} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{m},

yielding the boundary relation

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:420}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{m}.
}

# References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics, volume 20, chapter Time-varying and time-harmonic electromagnetic fields. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Updated notes for ece1229 antenna theory

I’ve now posted a first update of my notes for the antenna theory course that I am taking this term at UofT.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides which go by faster than I can easily take notes for (and some of which match the textbook closely). In class I have annotated my copy of textbook with little details instead. This set of notes contains musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book), as well as some notes Geometric Algebra formalism for Maxwell’s equations with magnetic sources (something I’ve encountered for the first time in any real detail in this class).

The notes compilation linked above includes all of the following separate notes, some of which have been posted separately on this blog:

## Notes for ece1229 antenna theory

I’ve now posted a first set of notes for the antenna theory course that I am taking this term at UofT.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides that match the textbook so closely, there is little value to me taking notes that just replicate the text. Instead, I am annotating my copy of textbook with little details instead. My usual notes collection for the class will contain musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book.)

• Reading notes for chapter 2 (Fundamental Parameters of Antennas) and chapter 3 (Radiation Integrals and Auxiliary Potential Functions) of the class text.
• Geometric Algebra musings.  How to do formulate Maxwell’s equations when magnetic sources are also included (those modeling magnetic dipoles).
• Some problems for chapter 2 content.

## Maxwell’s equations review (plus magnetic sources and currents)

These are notes for the UofT course ECE1229, Advanced Antenna Theory, taught by Prof. Eleftheriades, covering ch. 3 [1] content.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides that match the textbook so closely, there is little value to me taking notes that just replicate the text. Instead, I am annotating my copy of textbook with little details instead. My usual notes collection for the class will contain musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book.)

## Maxwell’s equation review

For reasons that are yet to be seen (and justified), we work with a generalization of Maxwell’s equations to include
electric AND magnetic charge densities.

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:20}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} – \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:40}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:60}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:80}

Assuming a phasor relationships of the form $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = \text{Real} \lr{ \BE(\Br) e^{j \omega t}}$$ for the fields and the currents, these reduce to

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:100}
\spacegrad \cross \BE = – \BM – j \omega \BB

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:120}
\spacegrad \cross \BH = \BJ + j \omega \BD

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:140}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:160}

In engineering the fields

• $$\BE$$ : Electric field intensity (V/m, Volts/meter).
• $$\BH$$ : Magnetic field intensity (A/m, Amperes/meter).

are designated primary fields, whereas

• $$\BD$$ : Electric flux density (or displacement vector) (C/m, {Coulombs/meter).
• $$\BB$$ : Magnetic flux density (W/m, Webers/meter).

are designated the induced fields. The currents and charges are

• $$\BJ$$ : Electric current density (A/m).
• $$\BM$$ : Magnetic current density (V/m).
• $$\rho$$ : Electric charge density (C/m^3).
• $$\rho_m$$ : Magnetic charge density (W/m^3).

Because $$\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \Bf } = 0$$ for any
(sufficiently continuous) vector $$\Bf$$, divergence relations between the
currents and the charges follow from \ref{eqn:chapter3Notes:100}…

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:180}
0
= -\spacegrad \cdot \BM – j \omega \rho_m,

and

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:200}
0
= \spacegrad \cdot \BJ + j \omega \rho,

These are the phasor forms of the continuity equations

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:220}
\spacegrad \cdot \BM = – j \omega \rho_m

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:240}
\spacegrad \cdot \BJ = -j \omega \rho.

### Integral forms

The integral forms of Maxwell’s equations follow from Stokes’ theorem and the divergence theorems. Stokes’ theorem is a relation between the integral of the curl and the outwards normal differential area element of a surface, to the boundary of that surface, and applies to any surface with that boundary

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:260}
\iint
= \oint \Bf \cdot d\Bl.

The divergence theorem, a special case of the general Stokes’ theorem is

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:280}
= \iint_{\partial V} \Bf \cdot d\BA,

where the integral is over the surface of the volume, and the area element of the bounding integral has an outwards normal orientation.

See [5] for a derivation of this and various generalizations.

Applying these to Maxwell’s equations gives

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:320}
\oint d\Bl \cdot \BE = –
\iint d\BA \cdot \lr{
\BM + j \omega \BB
}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:340}
\oint d\Bl \cdot \BH =
\iint d\BA \cdot \lr{
\BJ + j \omega \BD
}

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:360}
\iint_{\partial V} d\BA \cdot \BD = \iiint \rho dV

\label{eqn:chapter3Notes:380}
\iint_{\partial V} d\BA \cdot \BB = \iiint \rho_m dV

## Constitutive relations

For linear isotropic homogeneous materials, the following constitutive relations apply

• $$\BD = \epsilon \BE$$
• $$\BB = \mu \BH$$
• $$\BJ = \sigma \BE$$, Ohm’s law.

where

• $$\epsilon = \epsilon_r \epsilon_0$$, is the permutivity (F/m, Farads/meter ).
• $$\mu = \mu_r \mu_0$$, is the permeability (H/m, Henries/meter), $$\mu_0 = 4 \pi \times 10^{-7}$$.
• $$\sigma$$, is the conductivity ($$\inv{\Omega m}$$, where $$1/\Omega$$ is a Siemens.)

In AM radio, will see ferrite cores with the inductors, which introduces non-unit $$\mu_r$$. This is to increase the radiation resistance.

## Boundary conditions

For good electric conductor $$\BE = 0$$.
For good magnetic conductor $$\BB = 0$$.

(more on class slides)

## Linear time invariant

Linear time invariant meant that the impulse response $$h(t,t’)$$ was a function of just the difference in times $$h(t,t’) = h(t-t’)$$.

## Green’s functions

For electromagnetic problems the impulse function sources $$\delta(\Br – \Br’)$$ also has a direction, and can yield any of $$E_x, E_y, E_z$$. A tensor impulse response is required.

Some overview of an approach that uses such tensor Green’s functions is outlined on the slides. It gets really messy since we require four tensor Green’s functions to handle electric and magnetic current and charges. Because of this complexity, we don’t go down this path, and use potentials instead.

In \S 3.5 [1] and the class notes, a verification of the spherical wave form for the Helmholtz Green’s function was developed. This was much simpler than the same verification I did in [4]. Part of the reason for that was that I worked in Cartesian coordinates, which made things much messier. The other part of the reason, for treating a neighbourhood of $$\Abs{\Br – \Br’} \sim 0$$, I verified the convolution, whereas Prof. Eleftheriades argues that a verification that $$\int \lr{\spacegrad^2 + k^2} G(\Br, \Br’) dV’ = 1$$ is sufficient. Balanis, on the other hand, argues that knowing the solution for $$k \ne 0$$ must just be the solution for $$k = 0$$ (i.e. the Poisson solution) provided it is multiplied by the $$e^{-j k r}$$ factor.

Note that back when I did that derivation, I used a different sign convention for the Green’s function, and in QM we used a positive sign instead of the negative in $$e^{-j k r }$$.

## Notation

• Phasor frequency terms are written as $$e^{j \omega t}$$, not $$e^{-j \omega t}$$, as done in physics. I didn’t recall that this was always the case in physics, and wouldn’t have assumed it. This is the case in both [3] and [2]. The latter however, also uses $$\cos(\omega t – k r)$$ for spherical waves possibly implying an alternate phasor sign convention in that content, so I’d be wary about trusting any absolute “engineering” vs. physics sign convention without checking carefully.
• In Green’s functions $$G(\Br, \Br’)$$, $$\Br$$ is the point of observation, and $$\Br’$$ is the point in the convolution integration space.
• Both $$\BM$$ and $$\BJ_m$$ are used for magnetic current sources in the class notes.

# References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Antenna theory: analysis and design. John Wiley \& Sons, 3rd edition, 2005.

[2] David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics, chapter {Electromagnetic Waves}. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

[3] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics, chapter {Simple Radiating Systems, Scattering, and Diffraction}. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

[4] Peeter Joot. Quantum Mechanics II., chapter {Verifying the Helmholtz Green’s function.} peeterjoot.com, 2011. URL http://peeterjoot.com/archives/math2011/phy456.pdf. [Online; accessed 28-January-2015].

[5] Peeter Joot. Exploring physics with Geometric Algebra, chapter {Stokes theorem}. peeterjoot.com, 2014. URL http://peeterjoot.com/archives/math2009/gabook.pdf. [Online; accessed 28-January-2015].