## Transverse gauge

Jackson [1] has an interesting presentation of the transverse gauge. I’d like to walk through the details of this, but first want to translate the preliminaries to SI units (if I had the 3rd edition I’d not have to do this translation step).

### Gauge freedom

The starting point is noting that $$\spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0$$ the magnetic field can be expressed as a curl

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:20}

Faraday’s law now takes the form
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:40}
\begin{aligned}
0
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{\BB} \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{} \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \BE + \PD{t}{\BA} }.
\end{aligned}

Because this curl is zero, the interior sum can be expressed as a gradient

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:60}
\BE + \PD{t}{\BA} \equiv -\spacegrad \Phi.

This can now be substituted into the remaining two Maxwell’s equations.

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:80}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \BD &= \rho_v \\
\spacegrad \cross \BH &= \BJ + \PD{t}{\BD} \\
\end{aligned}

For Gauss’s law, in simple media, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:140}
\begin{aligned}
\rho_v
&=
&=
\end{aligned}

For simple media again, the Ampere-Maxwell equation is

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:100}
\inv{\mu} \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = \BJ + \epsilon \PD{t}{} \lr{ -\spacegrad \Phi – \PD{t}{\BA} }.

Expanding $$\spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = -\spacegrad^2 \BA + \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA }$$ gives
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:120}

Maxwell’s equations are now reduced to
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:180}
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA + \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi}} – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} &= -\mu \BJ \\
\end{aligned}
}

There are two obvious constraints that we can impose
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:200}
\spacegrad \cdot \BA – \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi} = 0,

or
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:220}

The first constraint is the Lorentz gauge, which I’ve played with previously. It happens to be really nice in a relativistic context since, in vacuum with a four-vector potential $$A = (\Phi/c, \BA)$$, that is a requirement that the four-divergence of the four-potential vanishes ($$\partial_\mu A^\mu = 0$$).

### Transverse gauge

Jackson identifies the latter constraint as the transverse gauge, which I’m less familiar with. With this gauge selection, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:260}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} = -\mu \BJ + \epsilon\mu \spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:280}

What’s not obvious is the fact that the irrotational (zero curl) contribution due to $$\Phi$$ in \ref{eqn:transverseGauge:260} cancels the corresponding irrotational term from the current. Jackson uses a transverse and longitudinal decomposition of the current, related to the Helmholtz theorem to allude to this.

That decomposition follows from expanding $$\spacegrad^2 J/R$$ in two ways using the delta function $$-4 \pi \delta(\Bx – \Bx’) = \spacegrad^2 1/R$$ representation, as well as directly

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:300}
\begin{aligned}
– 4 \pi \BJ(\Bx)
&=
\int \spacegrad^2 \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \spacegrad \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \spacegrad \wedge \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \BJ(\Bx’) \cdot \spacegrad’ \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’

\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
}
\end{aligned}

The first term can be converted to a surface integral

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:320}
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
=
\int d\BA’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}},

so provided the currents are either localized or $$\Abs{\BJ}/R \rightarrow 0$$ on an infinite sphere, we can make the identification

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:340}
\BJ(\Bx)
=
+
\spacegrad \cross \spacegrad \cross \inv{4 \pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\equiv
\BJ_l +
\BJ_t,

where $$\spacegrad \cross \BJ_l = 0$$ (irrotational, or longitudinal), whereas $$\spacegrad \cdot \BJ_t = 0$$ (solenoidal or transverse). The irrotational property is clear from inspection, and the transverse property can be verified readily

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:360}
\begin{aligned}
&=
&=
&=
&= 0.
\end{aligned}

Since

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:380}
\Phi(\Bx, t)
=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \int \frac{\rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,

we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:400}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{\partial_t \rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{-\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\BJ_l}{\epsilon}.
\end{aligned}

This means that the Ampere-Maxwell equation takes the form

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:420}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA}
= -\mu \BJ + \mu \BJ_l
= -\mu \BJ_t.

This justifies the transverse in the label transverse gauge.

# References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Line charge field and potential.

When computing the most general solution of the electrostatic potential in a plane, Jackson [1] mentions that $$-2 \lambda_0 \ln \rho$$ is the well known potential for an infinite line charge (up to the unit specific factor). Checking that statement, since I didn’t recall what that potential was offhand, I encountered some inconsistencies and non-convergent integrals, and thought it was worthwhile to explore those a bit more carefully. This will be done here.

### Using Gauss’s law.

For an infinite length line charge, we can find the radial field contribution using Gauss’s law, imagining a cylinder of length $$\Delta l$$ of radius $$\rho$$ surrounding this charge with the midpoint at the origin. Ignoring any non-radial field contribution, we have

\label{eqn:lineCharge:20}
\int_{-\Delta l/2}^{\Delta l/2} \ncap \cdot \BE (2 \pi \rho) dl = \frac{\lambda_0}{\epsilon_0} \Delta l,

or

\label{eqn:lineCharge:40}
\BE = \frac{\lambda_0}{2 \pi \epsilon_0} \frac{\rhocap}{\rho}.

Since

\label{eqn:lineCharge:60}

this means that the potential is

\label{eqn:lineCharge:80}
\phi = -\frac{2 \lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \ln \rho.

### Finite line charge potential.

Let’s try both these calculations for a finite charge distribution. Gauss’s law looses its usefulness, but we can evaluate the integrals directly. For the electric field

\label{eqn:lineCharge:100}
\BE
= \frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \int \frac{(\Bx – \Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3} dl’.

Using cylindrical coordinates with the field point $$\Bx = \rho \rhocap$$ for convience, the charge point $$\Bx’ = z’ \zcap$$, and a the charge distributed over $$[a,b]$$ this is

\label{eqn:lineCharge:120}
\BE
= \frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \int_a^b \frac{(\rho \rhocap – z’ \zcap)}{\lr{\rho^2 + (z’)^2}^{3/2}} dz’.

When the charge is uniformly distributed around the origin $$[a,b] = b[-1,1]$$ the $$\zcap$$ component of this field is killed because the integrand is odd. This justifies ignoring such contributions in the Gaussing cylinder analysis above. The general solution to this integral is found to be

\label{eqn:lineCharge:140}
\BE
=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}
\evalrange{
\lr{
\frac{z’ \rhocap }{\rho \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (z’)^2 } }
+\frac{\zcap}{ \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (z’)^2 } }
}
}{a}{b},

or
\label{eqn:lineCharge:240}
\boxed{
\BE
=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{\rhocap }{\rho}
\lr{
\frac{b}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 } }
-\frac{a}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 } }
}
+ \zcap
\lr{
\frac{1}{ \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 } }
-\frac{1}{ \sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 } }
}
}.
}

When $$b = -a = \Delta l/2$$, this reduces to

\label{eqn:lineCharge:160}
\BE
=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}
\frac{\rhocap }{\rho}
\frac{\Delta l}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (\Delta l/2)^2 } },

which further reduces to \ref{eqn:lineCharge:40} when $$\Delta l \gg \rho$$.

### Finite line charge potential. Wrong but illuminating.

Again, putting the field point at $$z’ = 0$$, we have

\label{eqn:lineCharge:180}
\phi(\rho)
= \frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \int_a^b \frac{dz’}{\lr{\rho^2 + (z’)^2}^{1/2}},

which integrates to
\label{eqn:lineCharge:260}
\phi(\rho)
= \frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\ln \frac{ b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}{ a + \sqrt{\rho^2 + a^2}}.

With $$b = -a = \Delta l/2$$, this approaches

\label{eqn:lineCharge:200}
\phi
\approx
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\ln \frac{ (\Delta l/2) }{ \rho^2/2\Abs{\Delta l/2}}
=
\frac{-2 \lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 } \ln \rho
+
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\ln \lr{ (\Delta l)^2/2 }.

Before $$\Delta l$$ is allowed to tend to infinity, this is identical (up to a difference in the reference potential) to \ref{eqn:lineCharge:80} found using Gauss’s law. It is, strictly speaking, singular when $$\Delta l \rightarrow \infty$$, so it does not seem right to infinity as a reference point for the potential.

There’s another weird thing about this result. Since this has no $$z$$ dependence, it is not obvious how we would recover the non-radial portion of the electric field from this potential using $$\BE = -\spacegrad \phi$$? Let’s calculate the elecric field from \ref{eqn:lineCharge:180} explicitly

\label{eqn:lineCharge:220}
\begin{aligned}
\BE
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}
\ln \frac{ b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}{ a + \sqrt{\rho^2 + a^2}} \\
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0 \rhocap}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\PD{\rho}{}
\ln \frac{ b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}{ a + \sqrt{\rho^2 + a^2}} \\
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0 \rhocap}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\inv{ b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }} \frac{ \rho }{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}
-\inv{ a + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 }} \frac{ \rho }{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 }}
} \\
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0 \rhocap}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 \rho}
\lr{
\frac{ -b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}
-\frac{ -a + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 }}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 }}
} \\
&=
\frac{\lambda_0 \rhocap}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 \rho}
\lr{
\frac{ b }{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}
-\frac{ a }{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + a^2 }}
}.
\end{aligned}

This recovers the radial component of the field from \ref{eqn:lineCharge:240}, but where did the $$\zcap$$ component go? The required potential appears to be

\label{eqn:lineCharge:340}
\phi(\rho, z)
=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\ln \frac{ b + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + b^2 }}{ a + \sqrt{\rho^2 + a^2}}

\frac{z \lambda_0}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 }
\lr{ \frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho^2 + b^2}}
-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho^2 + a^2}}
}.

When computing the electric field $$\BE(\rho, \theta, z)$$, it was convienent to pick the coordinate system so that $$z = 0$$. Doing this with the potential gives the wrong answers. The reason for this appears to be that this kills the potential term that is linear in $$z$$ before taking its gradient, and we need that term to have the $$\zcap$$ field component that is expected for a charge distribution that is non-symmetric about the origin on the z-axis!

### Finite line charge potential. Take II.

Let the point at which the potential is evaluated be

\label{eqn:lineCharge:360}
\Bx = \rho \rhocap + z \zcap,

and the charge point be
\label{eqn:lineCharge:380}
\Bx’ = z’ \zcap.

This gives

\label{eqn:lineCharge:400}
\begin{aligned}
\phi(\rho, z)
&= \frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \int_a^b \frac{dz’}{\Abs{\rho^2 + (z – z’)^2 }} \\
&= \frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \int_{a-z}^{b-z} \frac{du}{ \Abs{\rho^2 + u^2} } \\
&= \frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\evalrange{\ln \lr{ u + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + u^2 }}}{b-z}{a-z} \\
&=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\ln \frac
{ b-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }}
{ a-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }}.
\end{aligned}

The limit of this potential $$a = -\Delta/2 \rightarrow -\infty, b = \Delta/2 \rightarrow \infty$$ doesn’t exist in any strict sense. If we are cavilier about the limits, as in \ref{eqn:lineCharge:200}, this can be evaluated as

\label{eqn:lineCharge:n}
\phi \approx
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \lr{ -2 \ln \rho + \textrm{constant} }.

however, the constant ($$\ln \Delta^2/2$$) is infinite, so there isn’t really a good justification for using that constant as the potential reference point directly.

It seems that the “right” way to calculate the potential for the infinite distribution, is to

• Calculate the field from the potential.
• Take the PV limit of that field with the charge distribution extending to infinity.
• Compute the corresponding potential from this limiting value of the field.

Doing that doesn’t blow up. That field calculation, for the finite case, should include a $$\zcap$$ component. To verify, let’s take the respective derivatives

\label{eqn:lineCharge:420}
\begin{aligned}
-\PD{z}{} \phi
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{ -1 + \frac{z – b}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }} }{
b-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }
}

\frac{ -1 + \frac{z – a}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }} }{
a-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }
}
} \\
&=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{ 1 + \frac{b – z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }} }{
b-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }
}

\frac{ 1 + \frac{a – z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }} }{
a-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }
}
} \\
&=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\inv{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }}
-\inv{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }}
},
\end{aligned}

and

\label{eqn:lineCharge:440}
\begin{aligned}
-\PD{\rho}{} \phi
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{ \frac{\rho}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }} }{
b-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }
}

\frac{ \frac{\rho}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }} }{
a-z + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }
}
} \\
&=
-\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{\rho \lr{
-(b-z) + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }
}}{ \rho^2 \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 } }

\frac{\rho \lr{
-(a-z) + \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }
}}{ \rho^2 \sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 } }
} \\
&=
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0 \rho}
\lr{
\frac{b-z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }}
-\frac{a-z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }}
}
.
\end{aligned}

Putting the pieces together, the electric field is
\label{eqn:lineCharge:460}
\BE =
\frac{\lambda_0}{4\pi \epsilon_0}
\lr{
\frac{\rhocap}{\rho} \lr{
\frac{b-z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }}
-\frac{a-z}{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }}
}
+
\zcap \lr{
\inv{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (b-z)^2 }}
-\inv{\sqrt{ \rho^2 + (a-z)^2 }}
}
}.

For has a PV limit of \ref{eqn:lineCharge:40} at $$z = 0$$, and also for the finite case, has the $$\zcap$$ field component that was obtained when the field was obtained by direct integration.

### Conclusions

• We have to evaluate the potential at all points in space, not just on the axis that we evaluate the field on (should we choose to do so).
• In this case, we found that it was not directly meaningful to take the limit of a potential distribution. We can, however, compute the field from a potential for a finite charge distribution,
take the limit of that field, and then calculate the corresponding potential for the infinite distribution.

Is there a more robust mechanism that can be used to directly calculate the potential for an infinite charge distribution, instead of calculating the potential from the field of such an infinite distribution?

I think that were things go wrong is that the integral of \ref{eqn:lineCharge:180} does not apply to charge distributions that are not finite on the infinite range $$z \in [-\infty, \infty]$$. That solution was obtained by utilizing an all-space Green’s function, and the boundary term in that Green’s analysis was assumed to tend to zero. That isn’t the case when the charge distribution is $$\lambda_0 \delta( z )$$.

# References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Application of Stokes Theorem to the Maxwell equation

The relativistic form of Maxwell’s equation in Geometric Algebra is

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:20}
\grad F = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J,

where $$\grad = \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu$$ is the spacetime gradient, and $$J = (c\rho, \BJ) = J^\mu \gamma_\mu$$ is the four (vector) current density. The pseudoscalar for the space is denoted $$I = \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3$$, where the basis elements satisfy $$\gamma_0^2 = 1 = -\gamma_k^2$$, and a dual basis satisfies $$\gamma_\mu \cdot \gamma^\nu = \delta_\mu^\nu$$. The electromagnetic field $$F$$ is a composite multivector $$F = \BE + I c \BB$$. This is actually a bivector because spatial vectors have a bivector representation in the space time algebra of the form $$\BE = E^k \gamma_k \gamma_0$$.

A dual representation, with $$F = I G$$ is also possible

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:60}
\grad G = \frac{I}{c \epsilon_0} J.

Either form of Maxwell’s equation can be split into grade one and three components. The standard (non-dual) form is

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:40}
\begin{aligned}
\grad \cdot F &= \inv{c \epsilon_0} J \\
\end{aligned}

and the dual form is

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:41}
\begin{aligned}
\grad \cdot G &= 0 \\
\grad \wedge G &= \frac{I}{c \epsilon_0} J.
\end{aligned}

In both cases a potential representation $$F = \grad \wedge A$$, where $$A$$ is a four vector potential can be used to kill off the non-current equation. Such a potential representation reduces Maxwell’s equation to

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:80}
\grad \cdot F = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J,

or
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:100}
\grad \wedge G = \frac{I}{c \epsilon_0} J.

In both cases, these reduce to
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:120}

This can clearly be further simplified by using the Lorentz gauge, where $$\grad \cdot A = 0$$. However, the aim for now is to try applying Stokes theorem to Maxwell’s equation. The dual form \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:100} has the curl structure required for the application of Stokes. Suppose that we evaluate this curl over the three parameter volume element $$d^3 x = i\, dx^0 dx^1 dx^2$$, where $$i = \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2$$ is the unit pseudoscalar for the spacetime volume element.

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:101}
\begin{aligned}
\int_V d^3 x \cdot \lr{ \grad \wedge G }
&=
\int_V d^3 x \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\mu \wedge \partial_\mu G } \\
&=
\int_V \lr{ d^3 x \cdot \gamma^\mu } \cdot \partial_\mu G \\
&=
\sum_{\mu \ne 3} \int_V \lr{ d^3 x \cdot \gamma^\mu } \cdot \partial_\mu G.
\end{aligned}

This uses the distibution identity $$A_s \cdot (a \wedge A_r) = (A_s \cdot a) \cdot A_r$$ which holds for blades $$A_s, A_r$$ provided $$s > r > 0$$. Observe that only the component of the gradient that lies in the tangent space of the three volume manifold contributes to the integral, allowing the gradient to be used in the Stokes integral instead of the vector derivative (see: [1]).
Defining the the surface area element

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:140}
\begin{aligned}
d^2 x
&= \sum_{\mu \ne 3} i \cdot \gamma^\mu \inv{dx^\mu} d^3 x \\
&= \gamma_1 \gamma_2 dx dy
+ c \gamma_2 \gamma_0 dt dy
+ c \gamma_0 \gamma_1 dt dx,
\end{aligned}

Stokes theorem for this volume element is now completely specified

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:200}
\int_V d^3 x \cdot \lr{ \grad \wedge G }
=
\int_{\partial V} d^2 \cdot G.

Application to the dual Maxwell equation gives

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:160}
\int_{\partial V} d^2 x \cdot G
= \inv{c \epsilon_0} \int_V d^3 x \cdot (I J).

After some manipulation, this can be restated in the non-dual form

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:180}
\boxed{
\int_{\partial V} \inv{I} d^2 x \wedge F
= \frac{1}{c \epsilon_0 I} \int_V d^3 x \wedge J.
}

It can be demonstrated that using this with each of the standard basis spacetime 3-volume elements recovers Gauss’s law and the Ampere-Maxwell equation. So, what happened to Faraday’s law and Gauss’s law for magnetism? With application of Stokes to the curl equation from \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:40}, those equations take the form

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:240}
\boxed{
\int_{\partial V} d^2 x \cdot F = 0.
}

## Problem 1:

Demonstrate that the Ampere-Maxwell equation and Gauss’s law can be recovered from the trivector (curl) equation \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:100}.

The curl equation is a trivector on each side, so dotting it with each of the four possible trivectors $$\gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2, \gamma_0 \gamma_2 \gamma_3, \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_3, \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3$$ will give four different scalar equations. For example, dotting with $$\gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2$$, we have for the curl side

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:460}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 } \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\mu \wedge \partial_\mu G }
&=
\lr{ \lr{ \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 } \cdot \gamma^\mu } \cdot \partial_\mu G \\
&=
(\gamma_0 \gamma_1) \cdot \partial_2 G
+(\gamma_2 \gamma_0) \cdot \partial_1 G
+(\gamma_1 \gamma_2) \cdot \partial_0 G,
\end{aligned}

and for the current side, we have

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:480}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} \lr{ \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 } \cdot \lr{ I J }
&=
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} \gpgradezero{ \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 (\gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3) J } \\
&=
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} \gpgradezero{ -\gamma_3 J } \\
&=
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} \gamma^3 \cdot J \\
&=
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^3,
\end{aligned}

so we have
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:500}
(\gamma_0 \gamma_1) \cdot \partial_2 G
+(\gamma_2 \gamma_0) \cdot \partial_1 G
+(\gamma_1 \gamma_2) \cdot \partial_0 G
=
\inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^3.

Similarily, dotting with $$\gamma_{013}, \gamma_{023}, and \gamma_{123}$$ respectively yields
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:620}
\begin{aligned}
\gamma_{01} \cdot \partial_3 G + \gamma_{30} \partial_1 G + \gamma_{13} \partial_0 G &= – \inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^2 \\
\gamma_{02} \cdot \partial_3 G + \gamma_{30} \partial_2 G + \gamma_{23} \partial_0 G &= \inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^1 \\
\gamma_{12} \cdot \partial_3 G + \gamma_{31} \partial_2 G + \gamma_{23} \partial_1 G &= -\inv{\epsilon_0} \rho.
\end{aligned}

Expanding the dual electromagnetic field, first in terms of the spatial vectors, and then in the space time basis, we have
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:520}
\begin{aligned}
G
&= -I F \\
&= -I \lr{ \BE + I c \BB } \\
&= -I \BE + c \BB. \\
&= -I \BE + c B^k \gamma_k \gamma_0 \\
&= \inv{2} \epsilon^{r s t} \gamma_r \gamma_s E^t + c B^k \gamma_k \gamma_0.
\end{aligned}

So, dotting with a spatial vector will pick up a component of $$\BB$$, we have
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:540}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \gamma_m \wedge \gamma_0 } \cdot \partial_\mu G
&=
\lr{ \gamma_m \wedge \gamma_0 } \cdot \partial_\mu \lr{
\inv{2} \epsilon^{r s t} \gamma_r \gamma_s E^t + c B^k \gamma_k \gamma_0
} \\
&=
c \partial_\mu B^k
\gamma_m \gamma_0 \gamma_k \gamma_0
} \\
&=
c \partial_\mu B^k
\gamma_m \gamma_0 \gamma_0 \gamma^k
} \\
&=
c \partial_\mu B^k
\delta_m^k \\
&=
c \partial_\mu B^m.
\end{aligned}

Written out explicitly the electric field contributions to $$G$$ are

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:560}
\begin{aligned}
-I \BE
&=
-\gamma_{0123k0} E^k \\
&=
-\gamma_{123k} E^k \\
&=
\left\{
\begin{array}{l l}
\gamma_{12} E^3 & \quad \mbox{$$k = 3$$} \\
\gamma_{31} E^2 & \quad \mbox{$$k = 2$$} \\
\gamma_{23} E^1 & \quad \mbox{$$k = 1$$} \\
\end{array}
\right.,
\end{aligned}

so
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:580}
\begin{aligned}
\gamma_{23} \cdot G &= -E^1 \\
\gamma_{31} \cdot G &= -E^2 \\
\gamma_{12} \cdot G &= -E^3.
\end{aligned}

We now have the pieces required to expand \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:500} and \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:620}, which are respectively

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:501}
\begin{aligned}
– c \partial_2 B^1 + c \partial_1 B^2 – \partial_0 E^3 &= \inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^3 \\
– c \partial_3 B^1 + c \partial_1 B^3 + \partial_0 E^2 &= -\inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^2 \\
– c \partial_3 B^2 + c \partial_2 B^3 – \partial_0 E^1 &= \inv{\epsilon_0 c} J^1 \\
– \partial_3 E^3 – \partial_2 E^2 – \partial_1 E^1 &= – \inv{\epsilon_0} \rho
\end{aligned}

which are the components of the Ampere-Maxwell equation, and Gauss’s law

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:600}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{\mu_0} \spacegrad \cross \BB – \epsilon_0 \PD{t}{\BE} &= \BJ \\
\end{aligned}

## Problem 2:

Prove \ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:180}.

The proof just requires the expansion of the dot products using scalar selection

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:260}
\begin{aligned}
d^2 x \cdot G
&=
\gpgradezero{ d^2 x (-I) F } \\
&=
-\gpgradezero{ I d^2 x F } \\
&=
-I \lr{ d^2 x \wedge F },
\end{aligned}

and
for the three volume dot product

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:280}
\begin{aligned}
d^3 x \cdot (I J)
&=
d^3 x\, I J
} \\
&=
I d^3 x\, J
} \\
&=
-I \lr{ d^3 x \wedge J }.
\end{aligned}

## Problem 3:

Using each of the four possible spacetime volume elements, write out the components of the Stokes integral
\ref{eqn:maxwellStokes:180}.

The four possible volume and associated area elements are
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:220}
\begin{aligned}
d^3 x = c \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 dt dx dy & \qquad d^2 x = \gamma_1 \gamma_2 dx dy + c \gamma_2 \gamma_0 dy dt + c \gamma_0 \gamma_1 dt dx \\
d^3 x = c \gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_3 dt dx dz & \qquad d^2 x = \gamma_1 \gamma_3 dx dz + c \gamma_3 \gamma_0 dz dt + c \gamma_0 \gamma_1 dt dx \\
d^3 x = c \gamma_0 \gamma_2 \gamma_3 dt dy dz & \qquad d^2 x = \gamma_2 \gamma_3 dy dz + c \gamma_3 \gamma_0 dz dt + c \gamma_0 \gamma_2 dt dy \\
d^3 x = \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3 dx dy dz & \qquad d^2 x = \gamma_1 \gamma_2 dx dy + \gamma_2 \gamma_3 dy dz + c \gamma_3 \gamma_1 dz dx \\
\end{aligned}

Wedging the area element with $$F$$ will produce pseudoscalar multiples of the various $$\BE$$ and $$\BB$$ components, but a recipe for these components is required.

First note that for $$k \ne 0$$, the wedge $$\gamma_k \wedge \gamma_0 \wedge F$$ will just select components of $$\BB$$. This can be seen first by simplifying

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:300}
\begin{aligned}
I \BB
&=
\gamma_{0 1 2 3} B^m \gamma_{m 0} \\
&=
\left\{
\begin{array}{l l}
\gamma_{3 2} B^1 & \quad \mbox{$$m = 1$$} \\
\gamma_{1 3} B^2 & \quad \mbox{$$m = 2$$} \\
\gamma_{2 1} B^3 & \quad \mbox{$$m = 3$$}
\end{array}
\right.,
\end{aligned}

or

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:320}
I \BB = – \epsilon_{a b c} \gamma_{a b} B^c.

From this it follows that

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:340}
\gamma_k \wedge \gamma_0 \wedge F = I c B^k.

The electric field components are easier to pick out. Those are selected by

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:360}
\begin{aligned}
\gamma_m \wedge \gamma_n \wedge F
&= \gamma_m \wedge \gamma_n \wedge \gamma_k \wedge \gamma_0 E^k \\
&= -I E^k \epsilon_{m n k}.
\end{aligned}

The respective volume element wedge products with $$J$$ are

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:400}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{I} d^3 x \wedge J = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^3
\inv{I} d^3 x \wedge J = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^2
\inv{I} d^3 x \wedge J = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^1,
\end{aligned}

and the respective sum of surface area elements wedged with the electromagnetic field are

\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:380}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{I} d^2 x \wedge F &= – \evalbar{E^3}{c \Delta t} dx dy + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^2}{\Delta x} dy – \evalbar{B^1}{\Delta y} dx } dt \\
\inv{I} d^2 x \wedge F &= \evalbar{E^2}{c \Delta t} dx dz + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^3}{\Delta x} dz – \evalbar{B^1}{\Delta z} dx } dt \\
\inv{I} d^2 x \wedge F &= – \evalbar{E^1}{c \Delta t} dy dz + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^3}{\Delta y} dz – \evalbar{B^2}{\Delta z} dy } dt \\
\inv{I} d^2 x \wedge F &= – \evalbar{E^3}{\Delta z} dy dx – \evalbar{E^2}{\Delta y} dx dz – \evalbar{E^1}{\Delta x} dz dy,
\end{aligned}

so
\label{eqn:maxwellStokes:381}
\begin{aligned}
\int_{\partial V} – \evalbar{E^3}{c \Delta t} dx dy + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^2}{\Delta x} dy – \evalbar{B^1}{\Delta y} dx } dt &=
c \int_V dx dy dt \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^3 \\
\int_{\partial V} \evalbar{E^2}{c \Delta t} dx dz + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^3}{\Delta x} dz – \evalbar{B^1}{\Delta z} dx } dt &=
-c \int_V dx dy dt \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^2 \\
\int_{\partial V} – \evalbar{E^1}{c \Delta t} dy dz + c \lr{ \evalbar{B^3}{\Delta y} dz – \evalbar{B^2}{\Delta z} dy } dt &=
c \int_V dx dy dt \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^1 \\
\int_{\partial V} – \evalbar{E^3}{\Delta z} dy dx – \evalbar{E^2}{\Delta y} dx dz – \evalbar{E^1}{\Delta x} dz dy &=
-\int_V dx dy dz \inv{\epsilon_0} \rho.
\end{aligned}

Observe that if the volume elements are taken to their infinesimal limits, we recover the traditional differential forms of the Ampere-Maxwell and Gauss’s law equations.

# References

[1] A. Macdonald. Vector and Geometric Calculus. CreateSpace Independent Publishing Platform, 2012.

## Tangential and normal field components

The integral forms of Maxwell’s equations can be used to derive relations for the tangential and normal field components to the sources. These relations were mentioned in class. It’s a little late, but lets go over the derivation. This isn’t all review from first year electromagnetism since we are now using a magnetic source modifications of Maxwell’s equations.

The derivation below follows that of [1] closely, but I am trying it myself to ensure that I understand the assumptions.

The two infinitesimally thin pillboxes of fig. 1, and fig. 2 are used in the argument.

fig. 2: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

fig. 1: Pillboxes for tangential and normal field relations

Maxwell’s equations with both magnetic and electric sources are

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:20}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = -\PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:40}
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:60}

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:80}

After application of Stokes’ and the divergence theorems Maxwell’s equations have the integral form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl = -\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:120}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} \cdot d\Bl = \int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} }

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:160}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} \cdot d\BA
=
\int_V \rho_\textrm{m}\,dV.

First consider one of the loop integrals, like \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:100}. For an infinestismal loop, that integral is

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180}
\begin{aligned}
\oint \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cdot d\Bl
&\approx
\mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x \Delta x
+ \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x \Delta x
– \mathcal{E}^{(2)} \frac{\Delta y}{2}
– \mathcal{E}^{(1)} \frac{\Delta y}{2} \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(2)}} \Delta x \Delta y
+ \inv{2} \PD{x}{\mathcal{E}^{(1)}} \Delta x \Delta y.
\end{aligned}

We let $$\Delta y \rightarrow 0$$ which kills off all but the first difference term.

The RHS of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:180} is approximately

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:200}
-\int d\BA \cdot \lr{ \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}} + \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} }
\approx
– \Delta x \Delta y \lr{ \PD{t}{\mathcal{B}_z} + \mathcal{M}_z }.

If the magnetic field contribution is assumed to be small in comparison to the magnetic current (i.e. infinite magnetic conductance), and if a linear magnetic current source of the form is also assumed

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:220}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} \cdot \zcap} \zcap \Delta y,

then the Maxwell-Faraday equation takes the form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240}
\lr{ \mathcal{E}^{(1)}_x
-\mathcal{E}^{(2)}_x } \Delta x
\approx
– \Delta x \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap.

While $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$ may have components that are not normal to the interface, the surface current need only have a normal component, since only that component contributes to the surface integral.

The coordinate expression of \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:240} can be written as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:260}
– \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s \cdot \zcap
=
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cdot \lr{ \ycap \cross \zcap }
=
\lr{ \lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ycap } \cdot \zcap.

This is satisfied when

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:280}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s,
}

where $$\ncap$$ is the normal between the interfaces. I’d failed to understand when reading this derivation initially, how the $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}$$ contribution was killed off. i.e. If the vanishing area in the surface integral kills off the $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}$$ contribution, why do we have a $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$ contribution left. The key to this is understanding that this magnetic current is considered to be confined very closely to the surface getting larger as $$\Delta y$$ gets smaller.

Also note that the units of $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}_s$$ are volts/meter like the electric field (not volts/squared-meter like $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}}$$.)

## Ampere’s law

As above, assume a linear electric surface current density of the form

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:300}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \lr{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} \cdot \ncap} \ncap \Delta y,

in units of amperes/meter (not amperes/meter-squared like $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}$$.)

To apply the arguments above to Ampere’s law, only the sign needs to be adjusted

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:290}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(1)} -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}^{(2)} } \cross \ncap = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}}_s.
}

## Gauss’s law

Using the cylindrical pillbox surface with radius $$\Delta r$$, height $$\Delta y$$, and top and bottom surface areas $$\Delta A = \pi \lr{\Delta r}^2$$, the LHS of Gauss’s law \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:140} expands to

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320}
\begin{aligned}
\int_{\partial V} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}} \cdot d\BA
&\approx
\mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y \Delta A
+ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
+ \mathcal{D}^{(1)}_\rho 2 \pi \Delta r \frac{\Delta y}{2}
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y \Delta A \\
&\approx
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A.
\end{aligned}

As with the Stokes integrals above it is assumed that the height is infinestimal with respect to the radial dimension. Letting that height $$\Delta y \rightarrow 0$$ kills off the radially directed contributions of the flux through the sidewalls.

The RHS expands to approximately

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340}
\int_V \rho_\textrm{e}\,dV
\approx
\Delta A \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.

Define a highly localized surface current density (coulombs/meter-squared) as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:360}
\sigma_\textrm{e} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{e}.

Equating \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:340} with \ref{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:320} gives

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:380}
\lr{ \mathcal{D}^{(2)}_y
-\mathcal{D}^{(1)}_y } \Delta A
=
\Delta A \sigma_\textrm{e},

or

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:400}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{e}.
}

## Gauss’s law for magnetism

The same argument can be applied to the magnetic flux. Define a highly localized magnetic surface current density (webers/meter-squared) as

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:440}
\sigma_\textrm{m} = \lim_{\Delta y \rightarrow 0} \Delta y \rho_\textrm{m},

yielding the boundary relation

\label{eqn:normalAndTangentialFields:420}
\boxed{
\lr{ \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(2)} – \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}^{(1)} } \cdot \ncap = \sigma_\textrm{m}.
}

# References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics, volume 20, chapter Time-varying and time-harmonic electromagnetic fields. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Maxwell’s equations in tensor form with magnetic sources

Following the principle that one should always relate new formalisms to things previously learned, I’d like to know what Maxwell’s equations look like in tensor form when magnetic sources are included. As a verification that the previous Geometric Algebra form of Maxwell’s equation that includes magnetic sources is correct, I’ll start with the GA form of Maxwell’s equation, find the tensor form, and then verify that the vector form of Maxwell’s equations can be recovered from the tensor form.

### Tensor form

With four-vector potential $$A$$, and bivector electromagnetic field $$F = \grad \wedge A$$, the GA form of Maxwell’s equation is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:20}
\grad F = \frac{J}{\epsilon_0 c} + M I.

The left hand side can be unpacked into vector and trivector terms $$\grad F = \grad \cdot F + \grad \wedge F$$, which happens to also separate the sources nicely as a side effect

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:60}
\grad \cdot F = \frac{J}{\epsilon_0 c}

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:80}
\grad \wedge F = M I.

The electric source equation can be unpacked into tensor form by dotting with the four vector basis vectors. With the usual definition $$F^{\alpha \beta} = \partial^\alpha A^\beta – \partial^\beta A^\alpha$$, that is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:100}
\begin{aligned}
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \grad \cdot F }
&=
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \grad \cdot \lr{ \grad \wedge A } } \\
&=
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \partial_\nu \cdot
\lr{ \gamma_\alpha \partial^\alpha \wedge \gamma_\beta A^\beta } } \\
&=
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \cdot \lr{ \gamma_\alpha \wedge \gamma_\beta
} } \partial_\nu \partial^\alpha A^\beta \\
&=
\inv{2}
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \cdot \lr{ \gamma_\alpha \wedge \gamma_\beta } }
\partial_\nu F^{\alpha \beta} \\
&=
\inv{2} \delta^{\nu \mu}_{[\alpha \beta]} \partial_\nu F^{\alpha \beta} \\
&=
\inv{2} \partial_\nu F^{\nu \mu}

\inv{2} \partial_\nu F^{\mu \nu} \\
&=
\partial_\nu F^{\nu \mu}.
\end{aligned}

So the first tensor equation is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:120}
\boxed{
\partial_\nu F^{\nu \mu} = \inv{c \epsilon_0} J^\mu.
}

To unpack the magnetic source portion of Maxwell’s equation, put it first into dual form, so that it has four vectors on each side

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:140}
\begin{aligned}
M
&= – \lr{ \grad \wedge F} I \\
&= -\frac{1}{2} \lr{ \grad F I – F I \grad } \\
&= – \grad \cdot \lr{ F I }.
\end{aligned}

Dotting with $$\gamma^\mu$$ gives

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:160}
\begin{aligned}
M^\mu
&= \gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \grad \cdot \lr{ – F I } } \\
&= \gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \partial_\nu \cdot \lr{ -\frac{1}{2}
\gamma^\alpha \wedge \gamma^\beta I F_{\alpha \beta} } } \\
&= -\inv{2}
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\alpha \wedge \gamma^\beta I } }
}
\partial_\nu F_{\alpha \beta}.
\end{aligned}

This scalar grade selection is a complete antisymmetrization of the indexes

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:180}
\begin{aligned}
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\alpha \wedge \gamma^\beta I } }
}
&=
\gamma^\mu \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\nu \cdot \lr{
\gamma^\alpha \gamma^\beta
\gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3
} }
} \\
&=
\gamma_0 \gamma_1 \gamma_2 \gamma_3
\gamma^\mu \gamma^\nu \gamma^\alpha \gamma^\beta
} \\
&=
\delta^{\mu \nu \alpha \beta}_{3 2 1 0} \\
&=
\epsilon^{\mu \nu \alpha \beta },
\end{aligned}

so the magnetic source portion of Maxwell’s equation, in tensor form, is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:200}
\boxed{
\inv{2} \epsilon^{\nu \alpha \beta \mu}
\partial_\nu F_{\alpha \beta}
=
M^\mu.
}

### Relating the tensor to the fields

The electromagnetic field has been identified with the electric and magnetic fields by

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:220}
F = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} + c \mu_0 \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} I ,

or in coordinates

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:240}
\inv{2} \gamma_\mu \wedge \gamma_\nu F^{\mu \nu}
= E^a \gamma_a \gamma_0 + c \mu_0 H^a \gamma_a \gamma_0 I.

By forming the dot product sequence $$F^{\alpha \beta} = \gamma^\beta \cdot \lr{ \gamma^\alpha \cdot F }$$, the electric and magnetic field components can be related to the tensor components. The electric field components follow by inspection and are

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:260}
E^b = \gamma^0 \cdot \lr{ \gamma^b \cdot F } = F^{b 0}.

The magnetic field relation to the tensor components follow from

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:280}
\begin{aligned}
F^{r s}
&= F_{r s} \\
&= \gamma_s \cdot \lr{ \gamma_r \cdot \lr{ c \mu_0 H^a \gamma_a \gamma_0 I
} } \\
&=
c \mu_0 H^a \gpgradezero{ \gamma_s \gamma_r \gamma_a \gamma_0 I } \\
&=
c \mu_0 H^a \gpgradezero{ -\gamma^0 \gamma^1 \gamma^2 \gamma^3
\gamma_s \gamma_r \gamma_a \gamma_0 } \\
&=
c \mu_0 H^a \gpgradezero{ -\gamma^1 \gamma^2 \gamma^3
\gamma_s \gamma_r \gamma_a } \\
&=
– c \mu_0 H^a \delta^{[3 2 1]}_{s r a} \\
&=
c \mu_0 H^a \epsilon_{ s r a }.
\end{aligned}

Expanding this for each pair of spacelike coordinates gives

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:320}
F^{1 2} = c \mu_0 H^3 \epsilon_{ 2 1 3 } = – c \mu_0 H^3

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:340}
F^{2 3} = c \mu_0 H^1 \epsilon_{ 3 2 1 } = – c \mu_0 H^1

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:360}
F^{3 1} = c \mu_0 H^2 \epsilon_{ 1 3 2 } = – c \mu_0 H^2,

or

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:380}
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
E^1 &= F^{1 0} \\
E^2 &= F^{2 0} \\
E^3 &= F^{3 0} \\
H^1 &= -\inv{c \mu_0} F^{2 3} \\
H^2 &= -\inv{c \mu_0} F^{3 1} \\
H^3 &= -\inv{c \mu_0} F^{1 2}.
\end{aligned}
}

### Recover the vector equations from the tensor equations

Starting with the non-dual Maxwell tensor equation, expanding the timelike index gives

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:480}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{c \epsilon_0} J^0
&= \inv{\epsilon_0} \rho \\
&=
\partial_\nu F^{\nu 0} \\
&=
\partial_1 F^{1 0}
+\partial_2 F^{2 0}
+\partial_3 F^{3 0}
\end{aligned}

This is Gauss’s law

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:500}
\boxed{
=
\rho/\epsilon_0.
}

For a spacelike index, any one is representive. Expanding index 1 gives

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:520}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{c \epsilon_0} J^1
&= \partial_\nu F^{\nu 1} \\
&= \inv{c} \partial_t F^{0 1}
+ \partial_2 F^{2 1}
+ \partial_3 F^{3 1} \\
&= -\inv{c} E^1
+ \partial_2 (c \mu_0 H^3)
+ \partial_3 (-c \mu_0 H^2) \\
&=
\lr{ -\inv{c} \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}} + c \mu_0 \spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} } \cdot \Be_1.
\end{aligned}

Extending this to the other indexes and multiplying through by $$\epsilon_0 c$$ recovers the Ampere-Maxwell equation (assuming linear media)

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:540}
\boxed{
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{J}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{D}}}.
}

The expansion of the 0th free (timelike) index of the dual Maxwell tensor equation is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:400}
\begin{aligned}
M^0
&=
\inv{2} \epsilon^{\nu \alpha \beta 0}
\partial_\nu F_{\alpha \beta} \\
&=
-\inv{2} \epsilon^{0 \nu \alpha \beta}
\partial_\nu F_{\alpha \beta} \\
&=
-\inv{2}
\lr{
\partial_1 (F_{2 3} – F_{3 2})
+\partial_2 (F_{3 1} – F_{1 3})
+\partial_3 (F_{1 2} – F_{2 1})
} \\
&=

\lr{
\partial_1 F_{2 3}
+\partial_2 F_{3 1}
+\partial_3 F_{1 2}
} \\
&=

\lr{
\partial_1 (- c \mu_0 H^1 ) +
\partial_2 (- c \mu_0 H^2 ) +
\partial_3 (- c \mu_0 H^3 )
},
\end{aligned}

but $$M^0 = c \rho_m$$, giving us Gauss’s law for magnetism (with magnetic charge density included)

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:420}
\boxed{
}

For the spacelike indexes of the dual Maxwell equation, only one need be computed (say 1), and cyclic permutation will provide the rest. That is

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:440}
\begin{aligned}
M^1
&= \inv{2} \epsilon^{\nu \alpha \beta 1} \partial_\nu F_{\alpha \beta} \\
&=
\inv{2} \lr{ \partial_2 \lr{F_{3 0} – F_{0 3}} }
+\inv{2} \lr{ \partial_3 \lr{F_{0 2} – F_{0 2}} }
+\inv{2} \lr{ \partial_0 \lr{F_{2 3} – F_{3 2}} } \\
&=
– \partial_2 F^{3 0}
+ \partial_3 F^{2 0}
+ \partial_0 F_{2 3} \\
&=
-\partial_2 E^3 + \partial_3 E^2 + \inv{c} \PD{t}{} \lr{ – c \mu_0 H^1 } \\
&= – \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} + \mu_0 \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}} } \cdot \Be_1.
\end{aligned}

Extending this to the rest of the coordinates gives the Maxwell-Faraday equation (as extended to include magnetic current density sources)

\label{eqn:gaMagneticSourcesToTensorToVector:460}
\boxed{
\spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} = -\boldsymbol{\mathcal{M}} – \mu_0 \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}}.
}

This takes things full circle, going from the vector differential Maxwell’s equations, to the Geometric Algebra form of Maxwell’s equation, to Maxwell’s equations in tensor form, and back to the vector form. Not only is the tensor form of Maxwell’s equations with magnetic sources now known, the translation from the tensor and vector formalism has also been verified, and miraculously no signs or factors of 2 were lost or gained in the process.