## Magnetostatic force and torque

In Jackson , the following equations for the vector potential, magnetostatic force and torque are derived

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:20}
\Bm = \inv{2} \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:40}
\BF = \spacegrad( \Bm \cdot \BB ),
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:60}
\BN = \Bm \cross \BB,
\end{equation}

where $$\BB$$ is an applied external magnetic field and $$\Bm$$ is the magnetic dipole for the current in question. These results (and a similar one derived earlier for the vector potential $$\BA$$) all follow from
an analysis of localized current densities $$\BJ$$, evaluated far enough away from the current sources.

For the force and torque, the starting point for the force is one that had me puzzled a bit. Namely

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80}
\BF = \int \BJ(\Bx) \cross \BB(\Bx) d^3 x
\end{equation}

This is clearly the continuum generalization of the point particle Lorentz force equation, which for $$\BE = 0$$ is:

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:100}
\BF = q \Bv \cross \BB
\end{equation}

For the point particle, this is the force on the particle when it is in the external field $$BB$$. i.e. this is the force at the position of the particle. My question is what does it mean to sum all the forces on the charge distribution over all space.
How can a force be applied over all, as opposed to a force applied at a single point, or against a surface?

In the special case of a localized current density, this makes some sense. Considering the other half of the force equation $$\BF = \ddt{}\int \rho_m \Bv dV$$, where $$\rho_m$$ here is mass density of the charged particles making up the continuous current distribution. The other half of this $$\BF = m\Ba$$ equation is also an average phenomena, so we have an average of sorts on both the field contribution to the force equation and the mass contribution to the force equation. There is probably a centre-of-mass and centre-of-current density interpretation that would make a bit more sense of this continuum force description.

It’s kind of funny how you can work through all the detailed mathematical steps in a book like Jackson, but then go right back to the beginning and say “Hey, what does that even mean”?

### Force

Moving on from the pondering of the meaning of the equation being manipulated, let’s do the easy part, the derivation of the results that Jackson comes up with.

Writing out \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80} in coordinates

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:320}
\BF = \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \int J_j B_k d^3 x.
\end{equation}

To first order, a slowly varying (external) magnetic field can be expanded around a point of interest

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:120}
\BB(\Bx) = \BB(\Bx_0) + \lr{ \Bx – \Bx_0 } \cdot \spacegrad \BB,
\end{equation}

where the directional derivative is evaluated at the point $$\Bx_0$$ after the gradient operation. Setting the origin at this point $$\Bx_0$$ gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:340}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\lr{
\int J_j(\Bx’) B_k(0) d^3 x’
+
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\Bk_0 \int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
+
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We found

earlier
that the first integral can be written as a divergence

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:140}
\int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) x_j’ } dV’,
\end{equation}

which is zero when the integration surface is outside of the current localization region. We also found

that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
= -\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ = \Bm \cross \Bx.
\end{equation}

so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:180}
\begin{aligned}
\int (\spacegrad B_k(0) \cdot \Bx’) J_j
&= -\inv{2} \lr{ \spacegrad B_k(0) \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ}_j \\
&= \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:200}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j \\
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross \spacegrad }_j B_k(0) \\
&= (\Bm \cross \spacegrad) \cross \BB(0) \\
&= -\BB(0) \cross (\Bm \cross \lspacegrad) \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The second term is killed by the magnetic Gauss’s law, leaving to first order

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:220}
\BF = \spacegrad \lr{\Bm \cdot \BB}.
\end{equation}

### Torque

For the torque we have a similar quandary at the starting point. About what point is a continuum torque integral of the following form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:240}
\BN = \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(\Bx’)) d^3 x’?
\end{equation}

Ignoring that detail again, assuming the answer has something to do with the centre of mass and parallel axis theorem, we can proceed with a constant approximation of the magnetic field

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:260}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&= \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(0)) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) \BB(0) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\BB(0) \int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Jackson’s trick for killing the first integral is to transform it into a divergence by evaluating

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:280}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \BJ \Abs{\Bx}^2 }
&=
+
&=
\BJ \cdot \Be_i \partial_i x_m x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Be_i \delta_{im} x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Bx,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:300}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \oint \Bn \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Again, the localized current density assumption kills the surface integral. The second integral can be evaluated with \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}, so to first order we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:360}
\BN
=
\Bm \cross \BB.
\end{equation}

# References

 JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Geometric algebra notes collection split into two volumes

I’ve now split my (way too big) Exploring physics with Geometric Algebra into two volumes:

Each of these is now a much more manageable size, which should facilitate removing the redundancies in these notes, and making them more properly book like.

Also note I’ve also previously moved “Exploring Geometric Algebra” content related to:

• Lagrangian’s
• Hamiltonian’s
• Noether’s theorem

into my classical mechanics collection (449 pages).

## PHY1520H Graduate Quantum Mechanics. Lecture 5: time evolution of coherent states, and charged particles in a magnetic field. Taught by Prof. Arun Paramekanti

### Disclaimer

Peeter’s lecture notes from class. These may be incoherent and rough.

These are notes for the UofT course PHY1520, Graduate Quantum Mechanics, taught by Prof. Paramekanti, covering \textchapref{{1}}  content.

### Coherent states (cont.)

A coherent state for the SHO $$H = \lr{ N + \inv{2} } \Hbar \omega$$ was given by

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:20}
a \ket{z} = z \ket{z},
\end{equation}

where we showed that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:40}
\ket{z} = c_0 e^{ z a^\dagger } \ket{0}.
\end{equation}

In the Heisenberg picture we found

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:60}
\begin{aligned}
a_{\textrm{H}}(t) &= e^{i H t/\Hbar} a e^{-i H t/\Hbar} = a e^{-i\omega t} \\
a_{\textrm{H}}^\dagger(t) &= e^{i H t/\Hbar} a^\dagger e^{-i H t/\Hbar} = a^\dagger e^{i\omega t}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Recall that the position and momentum representation of the ladder operators was

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:80}
\begin{aligned}
a &= \inv{\sqrt{2}} \lr{ \hat{x} \sqrt{\frac{m \omega}{\Hbar}} + i \hat{p} \sqrt{\inv{m \Hbar \omega}} } \\
a^\dagger &= \inv{\sqrt{2}} \lr{ \hat{x} \sqrt{\frac{m \omega}{\Hbar}} – i \hat{p} \sqrt{\inv{m \Hbar \omega}} },
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

or equivalently
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:100}
\begin{aligned}
\hat{x} &= \lr{ a + a^\dagger } \sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}} \\
\hat{p} &= i \lr{ a^\dagger – a } \sqrt{\frac{m \Hbar \omega}{2}}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Given this we can compute expectation value of position operator

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:120}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{z} \hat{x} \ket{z}
&=
\sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}}
\bra{z}
\lr{ a + a^\dagger }
\ket{z} \\
&=
\lr{ z + z^\conj } \sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}} \\
&=
2 \textrm{Re} z \sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}} .
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Similarly

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:140}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{z} \hat{p} \ket{z}
&=
i \sqrt{\frac{m \Hbar \omega}{2}}
\bra{z}
\lr{ a^\dagger – a }
\ket{z} \\
&=
\sqrt{\frac{m \Hbar \omega}{2}}
2 \textrm{Im} z.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

How about the expectation of the Heisenberg position operator? That is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:160}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{z} \hat{x}_{\textrm{H}}(t) \ket{z}
&=
\sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{2 m \omega}} \bra{z} \lr{ a + a^\dagger } \ket{z} \\
&=
\sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{2 m \omega}} \lr{ z e^{-i \omega t} + z^\conj e^{i \omega t}} \\
&=
\sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{2 m \omega}} \lr{ \lr{z + z^\conj} \cos( \omega t ) -i \lr{ z – z^\conj } \sin( \omega t) } \\
&=
\sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{2 m \omega}} \lr{ \expectation{x(0)} \sqrt{ \frac{2 m \omega}{\Hbar}} \cos( \omega t ) -i \expectation{p(0)} i \sqrt{\frac{2 m \omega}{\Hbar} } \sin( \omega t) } \\
&=
\expectation{x(0)} \cos( \omega t ) + \frac{\expectation{p(0)}}{m \omega} \sin( \omega t) .
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We find that the average of the Heisenberg position operator evolves in time in exactly the same fashion as position in the classical Harmonic oscillator. This phase space like trajectory is sketched in fig. 1.

In the text it is shown that we have the same structure for the Heisenberg operator itself, before taking expectations

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:220}
\hat{x}_{\textrm{H}}(t)
=
{x(0)} \cos( \omega t ) + \frac{{p(0)}}{m \omega} \sin( \omega t).
\end{equation}

Where the coherent states become useful is that we will see that the second moments of position and momentum are not time dependent with respect to the coherent states. Such states remain localized.

### Uncertainty

First note that using the commutator relationship we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:180}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{z} a a^\dagger \ket{z}
&=
\bra{z} \lr{ \antisymmetric{a}{a^\dagger} + a^\dagger a } \ket{z} \\
&=
\bra{z} \lr{ 1 + a^\dagger a } \ket{z}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For the second moment we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:200}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{z} \hat{x}^2 \ket{z}
&=
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}
\bra{z} \lr{a + a^\dagger } \lr{a + a^\dagger } \ket{z} \\
&=
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}
\bra{z} \lr{
a^2 + {(a^\dagger)}^2 + a a^\dagger + a^\dagger a
} \ket{z} \\
&=
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}
\bra{z} \lr{
a^2 + {(a^\dagger)}^2 + 2 a^\dagger a + 1
} \ket{z} \\
&=
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}
\lr{ z^2 + {(z^\conj)}^2 + 2 z^\conj z + 1} \ket{z} \\
&=
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}
\lr{ z + z^\conj }^2
+
\frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We find

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:240}
\sigma_x^2 = \frac{\Hbar}{ 2 m \omega},
\end{equation}

and

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:260}
\sigma_p^2 = \frac{m \Hbar \omega}{2}
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:280}
\sigma_x^2 \sigma_p^2 = \frac{\Hbar^2}{4},
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:300}
\sigma_x \sigma_p = \frac{\Hbar}{2}.
\end{equation}

This is the minimum uncertainty.

### Quantum Field theory

In Quantum Field theory the ideas of isolated oscillators is used to model particle creation. The lowest energy state (a no particle, vacuum state) is given the lowest energy level, with each additional quantum level modeling a new particle creation state as sketched in fig. 2.

We have to imagine many oscillators, each with a distinct vacuum energy $$\sim \Bk^2$$ . The Harmonic oscillator can be used to model the creation of particles with $$\Hbar \omega$$ energy differences from that “vacuum energy”.

### Charged particle in a magnetic field

In the classical case ( with SI units or $$c = 1$$ ) we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:320}
\BF = q \BE + q \Bv \cross \BB.
\end{equation}

Alternately, we can look at the Hamiltonian view of the system, written in terms of potentials

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:340}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:360}
\BE = – \spacegrad \phi – \PD{t}{\BA}.
\end{equation}

Note that the curl form for the magnetic field implies one of the required Maxwell’s equations $$\spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0$$.

Ignoring time dependence of the potentials, the Hamiltonian can be expressed as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:380}
H = \inv{2 m} \lr{ \Bp – q \BA }^2 + q \phi.
\end{equation}

In this Hamiltonian the vector $$\Bp$$ is called the canonical momentum, the momentum conjugate to position in phase space.

It is left as an exercise to show that the Lorentz force equation results from application of the Hamiltonian equations of motion, and that the velocity is given by $$\Bv = (\Bp – q \BA)/m$$.

For quantum mechanics, we use the same Hamiltonian, but promote our position, momentum and potentials to operators.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:400}
\hat{H} = \inv{2 m} \lr{ \hat{\Bp} – q \hat{\BA}(\Br, t) }^2 + q \hat{\phi}(\Br, t).
\end{equation}

### Gauge invariance

Can we say anything about this before looking at the question of a particle in a magnetic field?

Recall that the we can make a gauge transformation of the form

\label{eqn:qmLecture5:420a}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:420}
\BA \rightarrow \BA + \spacegrad \chi
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:440}
\phi \rightarrow \phi – \PD{t}{\chi}
\end{equation}

Does this notion of gauge invariance also carry over to the Quantum Hamiltonian. After gauge transformation we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:460}
\hat{H}’
= \inv{2 m} \lr{ \hat{\Bp} – q \BA – q \spacegrad \chi }^2 + q \lr{ \phi – \PD{t}{\chi} }
\end{equation}

Now we are in a mess, since this function $$\chi$$ can make the Hamiltonian horribly complicated. We don’t see how gauge invariance can easily be applied to the quantum problem. Next time we will introduce a transformation that resolves some of this mess.

## Question: Lorentz force from classical electrodynamic Hamiltonian

Given the classical Hamiltonian

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:381}
H = \inv{2 m} \lr{ \Bp – q \BA }^2 + q \phi.
\end{equation}

apply the Hamiltonian equations of motion

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:480}
\begin{aligned}
\ddt{\Bp} &= – \PD{\Bq}{H} \\
\ddt{\Bq} &= \PD{\Bp}{H},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

to show that this is the Hamiltonian that describes the Lorentz force equation, and to find the velocity in terms of the canonical momentum and vector potential.

The particle velocity follows easily

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:500}
\begin{aligned}
\Bv
&= \ddt{\Br} \\
&= \PD{\Bp}{H} \\
&= \inv{m} \lr{ \Bp – a \BA }.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For the Lorentz force we can proceed in the coordinate representation

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:520}
\begin{aligned}
\ddt{p_k}
&= – \PD{x_k}{H} \\
&= – \frac{2}{2m} \lr{ p_m – q A_m } \PD{x_k}{}\lr{ p_m – q A_m } – q \PD{x_k}{\phi} \\
&= q v_m \PD{x_k}{A_m} – q \PD{x_k}{\phi},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We also have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:540}
\begin{aligned}
\ddt{p_k}
&=
\ddt{} \lr{m x_k + q A_k } \\
&=
m \frac{d^2 x_k}{dt^2} + q \PD{x_m}{A_k} \frac{d x_m}{dt} + q \PD{t}{A_k}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Putting these together we’ve got

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:560}
\begin{aligned}
m \frac{d^2 x_k}{dt^2}
&= q v_m \PD{x_k}{A_m} – q \PD{x_k}{\phi},
– q \PD{x_m}{A_k} \frac{d x_m}{dt} – q \PD{t}{A_k} \\
&=
q v_m \lr{ \PD{x_k}{A_m} – \PD{x_m}{A_k} } + q E_k \\
&=
q v_m \epsilon_{k m s} B_s + q E_k,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:580}
\begin{aligned}
m \frac{d^2 \Bx}{dt^2}
&=
q \Be_k v_m \epsilon_{k m s} B_s + q E_k \\
&= q \Bv \cross \BB + q \BE.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

## Question: Show gauge invariance of the magnetic and electric fields

After the gauge transformation of \ref{eqn:qmLecture5:420} show that the electric and magnetic fields are unaltered.

For the magnetic field the transformed field is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:600}
\begin{aligned}
\BB’
&= \BB.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture5:620}
\begin{aligned}
\BE’
&=
– \PD{t}{\BA’} – \spacegrad \phi’ \\
&=
– \PD{t}{}\lr{\BA + \spacegrad \chi} – \spacegrad \lr{ \phi – \PD{t}{\chi}} \\
&=
– \PD{t}{\BA} – \spacegrad \phi \\
&=
\BE.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

# References

 Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. Modern quantum mechanics. Pearson Higher Ed, 2014.

## Lagrangian for magnetic portion of Lorentz force

In  it is claimed in an Aharonov-Bohm discussion that a Lagrangian modification to include electromagnetism is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:20}
\LL \rightarrow \LL + \frac{e}{c} \Bv \cdot \BA.
\end{equation}

That can’t be the full Lagrangian since there is no $$\phi$$ term, so what exactly do we get?

If you have somehow, like I did, forgot the exact form of the Euler-Lagrange equations (i.e. where do the dots go), then the derivation of those equations can come to your rescue. The starting point is the action

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:40}
S = \int \LL(x, \xdot, t) dt,
\end{equation}

where the end points of the integral are fixed, and we assume we have no variation at the end points. The variational calculation is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:60}
\begin{aligned}
\delta S
&= \int \delta \LL(x, \xdot, t) dt \\
&= \int \lr{ \PD{x}{\LL} \delta x + \PD{\xdot}{\LL} \delta \xdot } dt \\
&= \int \lr{ \PD{x}{\LL} \delta x + \PD{\xdot}{\LL} \delta \ddt{x} } dt \\
&= \int \lr{ \PD{x}{\LL} – \ddt{}\lr{\PD{\xdot}{\LL}} } \delta x dt
+ \delta x \PD{\xdot}{\LL}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The boundary term is killed after evaluation at the end points where the variation is zero. For the result to hold for all variations $$\delta x$$, we must have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:80}
\boxed{
\PD{x}{\LL} = \ddt{}\lr{\PD{\xdot}{\LL}}.
}
\end{equation}

Now lets apply this to the Lagrangian at hand. For the position derivative we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:100}
\PD{x_i}{\LL}
=
\frac{e}{c} v_j \PD{x_i}{A_j}.
\end{equation}

For the canonical momentum term, assuming $$\BA = \BA(\Bx)$$ we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:120}
\begin{aligned}
\ddt{} \PD{\xdot_i}{\LL}
&=
\ddt{}
\lr{ m \xdot_i
+
\frac{e}{c} A_i
} \\
&=
m \ddot{x}_i
+
\frac{e}{c}
\ddt{A_i} \\
&=
m \ddot{x}_i
+
\frac{e}{c}
\PD{x_j}{A_i} \frac{dx_j}{dt}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Assembling the results, we’ve got

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:140}
\begin{aligned}
0
&=
\ddt{} \PD{\xdot_i}{\LL}

\PD{x_i}{\LL} \\
&=
m \ddot{x}_i
+
\frac{e}{c}
\PD{x_j}{A_i} \frac{dx_j}{dt}

\frac{e}{c} v_j \PD{x_i}{A_j},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:160}
\begin{aligned}
m \ddot{x}_i
&=
\frac{e}{c} v_j \PD{x_i}{A_j}

\frac{e}{c}
\PD{x_j}{A_i} v_j \\
&=
\frac{e}{c} v_j
\lr{
\PD{x_i}{A_j}

\PD{x_j}{A_i}
} \\
&=
\frac{e}{c} v_j B_k \epsilon_{i j k}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

In vector form that is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticLorentzForceLagrangian:180}
m \ddot{\Bx}
=
\frac{e}{c} \Bv \cross \BB.
\end{equation}

So, we get the magnetic term of the Lorentz force. Also note that this shows the Lagrangian (and the end result), was not in SI units. The $$1/c$$ term would have to be dropped for SI.

# References

 Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. Modern quantum mechanics. Pearson Higher Ed, 2014.