## Potential solutions to the static Maxwell’s equation using geometric algebra

When neither the electromagnetic field strength $$F = \BE + I \eta \BH$$, nor current $$J = \eta (c \rho – \BJ) + I(c\rho_m – \BM)$$ is a function of time, then the geometric algebra form of Maxwell’s equations is the first order multivector (gradient) equation
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:20}

While direct solutions to this equations are possible with the multivector Green’s function for the gradient
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:40}
G(\Bx, \Bx’) = \inv{4\pi} \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 },

the aim in this post is to explore second order (potential) solutions in a geometric algebra context. Can we assume that it is possible to find a multivector potential $$A$$ for which
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:60}

is a solution to the Maxwell statics equation? If such a solution exists, then Maxwell’s equation is simply
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:80}

which can be easily solved using the scalar Green’s function for the Laplacian
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:240}
G(\Bx, \Bx’) = -\inv{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} },

a beastie that may be easier to convolve than the vector valued Green’s function for the gradient.

It is immediately clear that some restrictions must be imposed on the multivector potential $$A$$. In particular, since the field $$F$$ has only vector and bivector grades, this gradient must have no scalar, nor pseudoscalar grades. That is
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:100}

This constraint on the potential can be avoided if a grade selection operation is built directly into the assumed potential solution, requiring that the field is given by
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:120}

However, after imposing such a constraint, Maxwell’s equation has a much less friendly form
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:140}

Luckily, it is possible to introduce a transformation of potentials, called a gauge transformation, that eliminates the ugly grade selection term, and allows the potential equation to be expressed as a plain old Laplacian. We do so by assuming first that it is possible to find a solution of the Laplacian equation that has the desired grade restrictions. That is
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:160}
\begin{aligned}
\end{aligned}

for which $$F = \spacegrad A’$$ is a grade 1,2 solution to $$\spacegrad F = J$$. Suppose that $$A$$ is any formal solution, free of any grade restrictions, to $$\spacegrad^2 A = J$$, and $$F = \gpgrade{\spacegrad A}{1,2}$$. Can we find a function $$\tilde{A}$$ for which $$A = A’ + \tilde{A}$$?

Maxwell’s equation in terms of $$A$$ is
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:180}
\begin{aligned}
J
\end{aligned}

or
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:200}

This non-homogeneous Laplacian equation that can be solved as is for $$\tilde{A}$$ using the Green’s function for the Laplacian. Alternatively, we may also solve the equivalent first order system using the Green’s function for the gradient.
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:220}

Clearly $$\tilde{A}$$ is not unique, as we can add any function $$\psi$$ satisfying the homogeneous Laplacian equation $$\spacegrad^2 \psi = 0$$.

In summary, if $$A$$ is any multivector solution to $$\spacegrad^2 A = J$$, that is
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:260}
A(\Bx)
= \int dV’ G(\Bx, \Bx’) J(\Bx’)
= -\int dV’ \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} },

then $$F = \spacegrad A’$$ is a solution to Maxwell’s equation, where $$A’ = A – \tilde{A}$$, and $$\tilde{A}$$ is a solution to the non-homogeneous Laplacian equation or the non-homogeneous gradient equation above.

### Integral form of the gauge transformation.

Additional insight is possible by considering the gauge transformation in integral form. Suppose that
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:280}
A(\Bx) = -\int_V dV’ \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} } – \tilde{A}(\Bx),

is a solution of $$\spacegrad^2 A = J$$, where $$\tilde{A}$$ is a multivector solution to the homogeneous Laplacian equation $$\spacegrad^2 \tilde{A} = 0$$. Let’s look at the constraints on $$\tilde{A}$$ that must be imposed for $$F = \spacegrad A$$ to be a valid (i.e. grade 1,2) solution of Maxwell’s equation.
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:300}
\begin{aligned}
F
&=
-\int_V dV’ \lr{ \spacegrad \inv{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} } } J(\Bx’)
&=
\int_V dV’ \lr{ \spacegrad’ \inv{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} } } J(\Bx’)
&=
\int_V dV’ \spacegrad’ \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} } – \int_V dV’ \frac{\spacegrad’ J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} }
&=
\int_{\partial V} dA’ \ncap’ \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} } – \int_V \frac{\spacegrad’ J(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} }
\end{aligned}

Where $$\ncap’ = (\Bx’ – \Bx)/\Norm{\Bx’ – \Bx}$$, and the fundamental theorem of geometric calculus has been used to transform the gradient volume integral into an integral over the bounding surface. Operating on Maxwell’s equation with the gradient gives $$\spacegrad^2 F = \spacegrad J$$, which has only grades 1,2 on the left hand side, meaning that $$J$$ is constrained in a way that requires $$\spacegrad J$$ to have only grades 1,2. This means that $$F$$ has grades 1,2 if
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:320}
= \int_{\partial V} dA’ \frac{ \gpgrade{\ncap’ J(\Bx’)}{0,3} }{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} }.

The product $$\ncap J$$ expands to
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:340}
\begin{aligned}
\ncap J
&=
&=
\ncap \cdot (-\eta \BJ) + \gpgradethree{\ncap (-I \BM)} \\
&=- \eta \ncap \cdot \BJ -I \ncap \cdot \BM,
\end{aligned}

so
\label{eqn:staticPotentials:360}
=
-\int_{\partial V} dA’ \frac{ \eta \ncap’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’) + I \ncap’ \cdot \BM(\Bx’)}{\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} }.

Observe that if there is no flux of current density $$\BJ$$ and (fictitious) magnetic current density $$\BM$$ through the surface, then $$F = \spacegrad A$$ is a solution to Maxwell’s equation without any gauge transformation. Alternatively $$F = \spacegrad A$$ is also a solution if $$\lim_{\Bx’ \rightarrow \infty} \BJ(\Bx’)/\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} = \lim_{\Bx’ \rightarrow \infty} \BM(\Bx’)/\Norm{\Bx – \Bx’} = 0$$ and the bounding volume is taken to infinity.

# References

## Generalizing Ampere’s law using geometric algebra.

The question I’d like to explore in this post is how Ampere’s law, the relationship between the line integral of the magnetic field to current (i.e. the enclosed current)
\label{eqn:flux:20}
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx \cdot \BH = -\int_A \ncap \cdot \BJ,

generalizes to geometric algebra where Maxwell’s equations for a statics configuration (all time derivatives zero) is
\label{eqn:flux:40}

where the multivector fields and currents are
\label{eqn:flux:60}
\begin{aligned}
F &= \BE + I \eta \BH \\
J &= \eta \lr{ c \rho – \BJ } + I \lr{ c \rho_\txtm – \BM }.
\end{aligned}

Here (fictitious) the magnetic charge and current densities that can be useful in antenna theory have been included in the multivector current for generality.

My presumption is that it should be possible to utilize the fundamental theorem of geometric calculus for expressing the integral over an oriented surface to its boundary, but applied directly to Maxwell’s equation. That integral theorem has the form
\label{eqn:flux:80}
\int_A d^2 \Bx \boldpartial F = \oint_{\partial A} d\Bx F,

where $$d^2 \Bx = d\Ba \wedge d\Bb$$ is a two parameter bivector valued surface, and $$\boldpartial$$ is vector derivative, the projection of the gradient onto the tangent space. I won’t try to explain all of geometric calculus here, and refer the interested reader to [1], which is an excellent reference on geometric calculus and integration theory.

The gotcha is that we actually want a surface integral with $$\spacegrad F$$. We can split the gradient into the vector derivative a normal component
\label{eqn:flux:160}

so
\label{eqn:flux:100}
=
\int_A d^2 \Bx \boldpartial F
+
\int_A d^2 \Bx \ncap \lr{ \ncap \cdot \spacegrad } F,

so
\label{eqn:flux:120}
\begin{aligned}
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx F
&=
\int_A d^2 \Bx \lr{ J – \ncap \lr{ \ncap \cdot \spacegrad } F } \\
&=
\int_A dA \lr{ I \ncap J – \lr{ \ncap \cdot \spacegrad } I F }
\end{aligned}

This is not nearly as nice as the magnetic flux relationship which was nicely split with the current and fields nicely separated. The $$d\Bx F$$ product has all possible grades, as does the $$d^2 \Bx J$$ product (in general). Observe however, that the normal term on the right has only grades 1,2, so we can split our line integral relations into pairs with and without grade 1,2 components
\label{eqn:flux:140}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\int_A dA \gpgrade{ I \ncap J }{0,3} \\
&=
\int_A dA \lr{ \gpgrade{ I \ncap J }{1,2} – \lr{ \ncap \cdot \spacegrad } I F }.
\end{aligned}

Let’s expand these explicitly in terms of the component fields and densities to check against the conventional relationships, and see if things look right. The line integrand expands to
\label{eqn:flux:180}
\begin{aligned}
d\Bx F
&=
d\Bx \lr{ \BE + I \eta \BH }
=
d\Bx \cdot \BE + I \eta d\Bx \cdot \BH
+
d\Bx \wedge \BE + I \eta d\Bx \wedge \BH \\
&=
d\Bx \cdot \BE
– \eta (d\Bx \cross \BH)
+ I (d\Bx \cross \BE )
+ I \eta (d\Bx \cdot \BH),
\end{aligned}

the current integrand expands to
\label{eqn:flux:200}
\begin{aligned}
I \ncap J
&=
I \ncap
\lr{
\frac{\rho}{\epsilon} – \eta \BJ + I \lr{ c \rho_\txtm – \BM }
} \\
&=
\ncap I \frac{\rho}{\epsilon} – \eta \ncap I \BJ – \ncap c \rho_\txtm + \ncap \BM \\
&=
\ncap \cdot \BM
+ \eta (\ncap \cross \BJ)
– \ncap c \rho_\txtm
+ I (\ncap \cross \BM)
+ \ncap I \frac{\rho}{\epsilon}
– \eta I (\ncap \cdot \BJ).
\end{aligned}

We are left with
\label{eqn:flux:220}
\begin{aligned}
\oint_{\partial A}
\lr{
d\Bx \cdot \BE + I \eta (d\Bx \cdot \BH)
}
&=
\int_A dA
\lr{
\ncap \cdot \BM – \eta I (\ncap \cdot \BJ)
} \\
\oint_{\partial A}
\lr{
– \eta (d\Bx \cross \BH)
+ I (d\Bx \cross \BE )
}
&=
\int_A dA
\lr{
\eta (\ncap \cross \BJ)
– \ncap c \rho_\txtm
+ I (\ncap \cross \BM)
+ \ncap I \frac{\rho}{\epsilon}
-\PD{n}{} \lr{ I \BE – \eta \BH }
}.
\end{aligned}

This is a crazy mess of dots, crosses, fields and sources. We can split it into one equation for each grade, which will probably look a little more regular. That is
\label{eqn:flux:240}
\begin{aligned}
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx \cdot \BE &= \int_A dA \ncap \cdot \BM \\
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx \cross \BH
&=
\int_A dA
\lr{
– \ncap \cross \BJ
+ \frac{ \ncap \rho_\txtm }{\mu}
– \PD{n}{\BH}
} \\
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx \cross \BE &=
\int_A dA
\lr{
\ncap \cross \BM
+ \frac{\ncap \rho}{\epsilon}
– \PD{n}{\BE}
} \\
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx \cdot \BH &= -\int_A dA \ncap \cdot \BJ \\
\end{aligned}

The first and last equations could have been obtained much more easily from Maxwell’s equations in their conventional form more easily. The two cross product equations with the normal derivatives are not familiar to me, even without the fictitious magnetic sources. It is somewhat remarkable that so much can be packed into one multivector equation:
\label{eqn:flux:260}
\oint_{\partial A} d\Bx F
=
I \int_A dA \lr{ \ncap J – \PD{n}{F} }.

# References

[1] A. Macdonald. Vector and Geometric Calculus. CreateSpace Independent Publishing Platform, 2012.

## Solving Maxwell’s equation in freespace: Multivector plane wave representation

The geometric algebra form of Maxwell’s equations in free space (or source free isotopic media with group velocity $$c$$) is the multivector equation
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:20}
\lr{ \spacegrad + \inv{c}\PD{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.

Here $$F = \BE + I c \BB$$ is a multivector with grades 1 and 2 (vector and bivector components). The velocity $$c$$ is called the group velocity since $$F$$, or its components $$\BE, \BH$$ satisfy the wave equation, which can be seen by pre-multiplying with $$\spacegrad – (1/c)\PDi{t}{}$$ to find
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:n}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 – \inv{c^2}\PDSq{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.

Let’s look at the frequency domain solution of this equation with a presumed phasor representation
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:40}
F(\Bx, t) = \textrm{Re} \lr{ F(\Bk) e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t} },

where $$j$$ is a scalar imaginary, not necessarily with any geometric interpretation.

Maxwell’s equation reduces to just
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:60}
0
=
-j \lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} } F(\Bk).

If $$F(\Bk)$$ has a left multivector factor
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:80}
F(\Bk) =
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F},

where $$\tilde{F}$$ is a multivector to be determined, then
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:100}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F} \\
&=
\lr{ \Bk^2 – \lr{\frac{\omega}{c}}^2 } \tilde{F},
\end{aligned}

which is zero if $$\Norm{\Bk} = \ifrac{\omega}{c}$$.

Let $$\kcap = \ifrac{\Bk}{\Norm{\Bk}}$$, and $$\Norm{\Bk} \tilde{F} = F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3$$, where $$F_0, F_1, F_2,$$ and $$F_3$$ are respectively have grades 0,1,2,3. Then
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:120}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&= \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 } \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap F_1 + \kcap F_2 + \kcap F_3 \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1 + \kcap \cdot F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3
+
\kcap \wedge F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_2 \\
&=
\lr{
F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_1 + \kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}
+
\lr{
F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_2
}.
\end{aligned}

Since the field $$F$$ has only vector and bivector grades, the grades zero and three components of the expansion above must be zero, or
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:140}
\begin{aligned}
F_0 &= – \kcap \cdot F_1 \\
F_3 &= – \kcap \wedge F_2,
\end{aligned}

so
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:160}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap \cdot F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap \wedge F_2
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}.
\end{aligned}

The multivector $$1 + \kcap$$ has the projective property of gobbling any leading factors of $$\kcap$$
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:180}
\begin{aligned}
(1 + \kcap)\kcap
&= \kcap + 1 \\
&= 1 + \kcap,
\end{aligned}

so for $$F_i \in F_1, F_2$$
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:200}
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – \kcap F_i )
=
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – F_i )
= 0,

leaving
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:220}
F(\Bk)
=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
\kcap \cdot F_2 +
\kcap \wedge F_1
}.

For $$\kcap \cdot F_2$$ to be non-zero $$F_2$$ must be a bivector that lies in a plane containing $$\kcap$$, and $$\kcap \cdot F_2$$ is a vector in that plane that is perpendicular to $$\kcap$$. On the other hand $$\kcap \wedge F_1$$ is non-zero only if $$F_1$$ has a non-zero component that does not lie in along the $$\kcap$$ direction, but $$\kcap \wedge F_1$$, like $$F_2$$ describes a plane that containing $$\kcap$$. This means that having both bivector and vector free variables $$F_2$$ and $$F_1$$ provide more degrees of freedom than required. For example, if $$\BE$$ is any vector, and $$F_2 = \kcap \wedge \BE$$, then
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:240}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot F_2
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\lr{
\BE

\kcap \lr{ \kcap \cdot \BE }
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \wedge \BE,
\end{aligned}

which has the form $$\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ \kcap \wedge F_1 }$$, so the solution of the free space Maxwell’s equation can be written
\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:260}
\boxed{
F(\Bx, t)
=
\textrm{Re} \lr{
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\BE\,
e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t}
}
,
}

where $$\BE$$ is any vector for which $$\BE \cdot \Bk = 0$$.

## Transverse gauge

Jackson [1] has an interesting presentation of the transverse gauge. I’d like to walk through the details of this, but first want to translate the preliminaries to SI units (if I had the 3rd edition I’d not have to do this translation step).

### Gauge freedom

The starting point is noting that $$\spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0$$ the magnetic field can be expressed as a curl

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:20}

Faraday’s law now takes the form
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:40}
\begin{aligned}
0
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{\BB} \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{} \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \BE + \PD{t}{\BA} }.
\end{aligned}

Because this curl is zero, the interior sum can be expressed as a gradient

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:60}
\BE + \PD{t}{\BA} \equiv -\spacegrad \Phi.

This can now be substituted into the remaining two Maxwell’s equations.

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:80}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \BD &= \rho_v \\
\spacegrad \cross \BH &= \BJ + \PD{t}{\BD} \\
\end{aligned}

For Gauss’s law, in simple media, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:140}
\begin{aligned}
\rho_v
&=
&=
\end{aligned}

For simple media again, the Ampere-Maxwell equation is

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:100}
\inv{\mu} \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = \BJ + \epsilon \PD{t}{} \lr{ -\spacegrad \Phi – \PD{t}{\BA} }.

Expanding $$\spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = -\spacegrad^2 \BA + \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA }$$ gives
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:120}

Maxwell’s equations are now reduced to
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:180}
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA + \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi}} – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} &= -\mu \BJ \\
\end{aligned}
}

There are two obvious constraints that we can impose
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:200}
\spacegrad \cdot \BA – \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi} = 0,

or
\label{eqn:transverseGauge:220}

The first constraint is the Lorentz gauge, which I’ve played with previously. It happens to be really nice in a relativistic context since, in vacuum with a four-vector potential $$A = (\Phi/c, \BA)$$, that is a requirement that the four-divergence of the four-potential vanishes ($$\partial_\mu A^\mu = 0$$).

### Transverse gauge

Jackson identifies the latter constraint as the transverse gauge, which I’m less familiar with. With this gauge selection, we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:260}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} = -\mu \BJ + \epsilon\mu \spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:280}

What’s not obvious is the fact that the irrotational (zero curl) contribution due to $$\Phi$$ in \ref{eqn:transverseGauge:260} cancels the corresponding irrotational term from the current. Jackson uses a transverse and longitudinal decomposition of the current, related to the Helmholtz theorem to allude to this.

That decomposition follows from expanding $$\spacegrad^2 J/R$$ in two ways using the delta function $$-4 \pi \delta(\Bx – \Bx’) = \spacegrad^2 1/R$$ representation, as well as directly

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:300}
\begin{aligned}
– 4 \pi \BJ(\Bx)
&=
\int \spacegrad^2 \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \spacegrad \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \spacegrad \wedge \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\int \BJ(\Bx’) \cdot \spacegrad’ \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’

\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
}
\end{aligned}

The first term can be converted to a surface integral

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:320}
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
=
\int d\BA’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}},

so provided the currents are either localized or $$\Abs{\BJ}/R \rightarrow 0$$ on an infinite sphere, we can make the identification

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:340}
\BJ(\Bx)
=
+
\spacegrad \cross \spacegrad \cross \inv{4 \pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\equiv
\BJ_l +
\BJ_t,

where $$\spacegrad \cross \BJ_l = 0$$ (irrotational, or longitudinal), whereas $$\spacegrad \cdot \BJ_t = 0$$ (solenoidal or transverse). The irrotational property is clear from inspection, and the transverse property can be verified readily

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:360}
\begin{aligned}
&=
&=
&=
&= 0.
\end{aligned}

Since

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:380}
\Phi(\Bx, t)
=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \int \frac{\rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,

we have

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:400}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{\partial_t \rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{-\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\BJ_l}{\epsilon}.
\end{aligned}

This means that the Ampere-Maxwell equation takes the form

\label{eqn:transverseGauge:420}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA}
= -\mu \BJ + \mu \BJ_l
= -\mu \BJ_t.

This justifies the transverse in the label transverse gauge.

# References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Calculating the magnetostatic field from the moment

The vector potential, to first order, for a magnetostatic localized current distribution was found to be

\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:20}
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\Bm \cross \Bx}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.

Initially, I tried to calculate the magnetic field from this, but ran into trouble. Here’s a new try.

\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:40}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\spacegrad \cross \lr{ \Bm \cross \frac{\Bx}{r^3} } \\
&=
-\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \Bm \wedge \frac{\Bx}{r^3} } \\
&=
-\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
} \\
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
– \lr{ \Bm \cdot \lr{\spacegrad \inv{r^3} }} \Bx
+\Bm \lr{\spacegrad \inv{r^3} } \cdot \Bx
}.
\end{aligned}

Here I’ve used $$\Ba \cross \lr{ \Bb \cross \Bc } = -\Ba \cdot \lr{ \Bb \wedge \Bc }$$, and then expanded that with $$\Ba \cdot \lr{ \Bb \wedge \Bc } = (\Ba \cdot \Bb) \Bc – (\Ba \cdot \Bc) \Bb$$. Since one of these vectors is the gradient, care must be taken to have it operate on the appropriate terms in such an expansion.

Since we have $$\spacegrad \cdot \Bx = 3$$, $$(\Bm \cdot \spacegrad) \Bx = \Bm$$, and $$\spacegrad 1/r^n = -n \Bx/r^{n+2}$$, this reduces to

\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:60}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
– \frac{\Bm}{r^3}
+ 3 \frac{(\Bm \cdot \Bx) \Bx}{r^5} %
+ 3 \Bm \inv{r^3}
-3 \Bm \frac{\Bx}{r^5} \cdot \Bx
} \\
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\frac{3 (\Bm \cdot \ncap) \ncap -\Bm}{r^3},
\end{aligned}

which is the desired result.

## Magnetostatic force and torque

In Jackson [1], the following equations for the vector potential, magnetostatic force and torque are derived

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:20}
\Bm = \inv{2} \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:40}
\BF = \spacegrad( \Bm \cdot \BB ),

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:60}
\BN = \Bm \cross \BB,

where $$\BB$$ is an applied external magnetic field and $$\Bm$$ is the magnetic dipole for the current in question. These results (and a similar one derived earlier for the vector potential $$\BA$$) all follow from
an analysis of localized current densities $$\BJ$$, evaluated far enough away from the current sources.

For the force and torque, the starting point for the force is one that had me puzzled a bit. Namely

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80}
\BF = \int \BJ(\Bx) \cross \BB(\Bx) d^3 x

This is clearly the continuum generalization of the point particle Lorentz force equation, which for $$\BE = 0$$ is:

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:100}
\BF = q \Bv \cross \BB

For the point particle, this is the force on the particle when it is in the external field $$BB$$. i.e. this is the force at the position of the particle. My question is what does it mean to sum all the forces on the charge distribution over all space.
How can a force be applied over all, as opposed to a force applied at a single point, or against a surface?

In the special case of a localized current density, this makes some sense. Considering the other half of the force equation $$\BF = \ddt{}\int \rho_m \Bv dV$$, where $$\rho_m$$ here is mass density of the charged particles making up the continuous current distribution. The other half of this $$\BF = m\Ba$$ equation is also an average phenomena, so we have an average of sorts on both the field contribution to the force equation and the mass contribution to the force equation. There is probably a centre-of-mass and centre-of-current density interpretation that would make a bit more sense of this continuum force description.

It’s kind of funny how you can work through all the detailed mathematical steps in a book like Jackson, but then go right back to the beginning and say “Hey, what does that even mean”?

### Force

Moving on from the pondering of the meaning of the equation being manipulated, let’s do the easy part, the derivation of the results that Jackson comes up with.

Writing out \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80} in coordinates

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:320}
\BF = \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \int J_j B_k d^3 x.

To first order, a slowly varying (external) magnetic field can be expanded around a point of interest

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:120}
\BB(\Bx) = \BB(\Bx_0) + \lr{ \Bx – \Bx_0 } \cdot \spacegrad \BB,

where the directional derivative is evaluated at the point $$\Bx_0$$ after the gradient operation. Setting the origin at this point $$\Bx_0$$ gives

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:340}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\lr{
\int J_j(\Bx’) B_k(0) d^3 x’
+
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\Bk_0 \int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
+
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}

We found

earlier
that the first integral can be written as a divergence

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:140}
\int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) x_j’ } dV’,

which is zero when the integration surface is outside of the current localization region. We also found

that

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
= -\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ = \Bm \cross \Bx.

so
\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:180}
\begin{aligned}
\int (\spacegrad B_k(0) \cdot \Bx’) J_j
&= -\inv{2} \lr{ \spacegrad B_k(0) \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ}_j \\
&= \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j.
\end{aligned}

This gives

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:200}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j \\
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross \spacegrad }_j B_k(0) \\
&= (\Bm \cross \spacegrad) \cross \BB(0) \\
&= -\BB(0) \cross (\Bm \cross \lspacegrad) \\
\end{aligned}

The second term is killed by the magnetic Gauss’s law, leaving to first order

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:220}
\BF = \spacegrad \lr{\Bm \cdot \BB}.

### Torque

For the torque we have a similar quandary at the starting point. About what point is a continuum torque integral of the following form

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:240}
\BN = \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(\Bx’)) d^3 x’?

Ignoring that detail again, assuming the answer has something to do with the centre of mass and parallel axis theorem, we can proceed with a constant approximation of the magnetic field

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:260}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&= \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(0)) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) \BB(0) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\BB(0) \int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}

Jackson’s trick for killing the first integral is to transform it into a divergence by evaluating

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:280}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \BJ \Abs{\Bx}^2 }
&=
+
&=
\BJ \cdot \Be_i \partial_i x_m x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Be_i \delta_{im} x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Bx,
\end{aligned}

so

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:300}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \oint \Bn \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}

Again, the localized current density assumption kills the surface integral. The second integral can be evaluated with \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}, so to first order we have

\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:360}
\BN
=
\Bm \cross \BB.

# References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Magnetic moment for a localized magnetostatic current

### Motivation.

I was once again reading my Jackson [2]. This time I found that his presentation of magnetic moment didn’t really make sense to me. Here’s my own pass through it, filling in a number of details. As I did last time, I’ll also translate into SI units as I go.

### Vector potential.

The Biot-Savart expression for the magnetic field can be factored into a curl expression using the usual tricks

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:20}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’) \cross (\Bx – \Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3} d^3 x’ \\
&= -\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int \BJ(\Bx’) \cross \spacegrad \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \spacegrad \cross \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,
\end{aligned}

so the vector potential, through its curl, defines the magnetic field $$\BB = \spacegrad \cross \BA$$ is given by

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:40}
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’.

If the current source is localized (zero outside of some finite region), then there will always be a region for which $$\Abs{\Bx} \gg \Abs{\Bx’}$$, so the denominator yields to Taylor expansion

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:60}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}}
&=
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} \lr{1 + \frac{\Abs{\Bx’}^2}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} – 2 \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} }^{-1/2} \\
&\approx
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} \lr{ 1 + \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} } \\
&=
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} + \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.
\end{aligned}

so the vector potential, far enough away from the current source is
\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:80}
\BA(\Bx)
=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’
+\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{(\Bx \cdot \Bx’)J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}^3} d^3 x’.

Jackson uses a sneaky trick to show that the first integral is killed for a localized source. That trick appears to be based on evaluating the following divergence

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:100}
\begin{aligned}
&=
+
&=
(\Be_k \partial_k x_i) \cdot\BJ \\
&=
\delta_{ki} J_k \\
&=
J_i.
\end{aligned}

Note that this made use of the fact that $$\spacegrad \cdot \BJ = 0$$ for magnetostatics. This provides a way to rewrite the current density as a divergence

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:120}
\begin{aligned}
\int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’
&=
\Be_i \int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot (x_i’ \BJ(\Bx’))}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\Be_i}{\Abs{\Bx}} \int \spacegrad’ \cdot (x_i’ \BJ(\Bx’)) d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{1}{\Abs{\Bx}} \oint \Bx’ (d\Ba \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)).
\end{aligned}

When $$\BJ$$ is localized, this is zero provided we pick the integration surface for the volume outside of that localization region.

It is now desired to rewrite $$\int \Bx \cdot \Bx’ \BJ$$ as a triple cross product since the dot product of such a triple cross product has exactly this term in it

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:140}
\begin{aligned}
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
&=
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ

\int (\Bx \cdot \BJ) \Bx’ \\
&=
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ

\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’,
\end{aligned}

so
\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:160}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’.

To get of this second term, the next sneaky trick is to consider the following divergence

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:180}
\begin{aligned}
\oint d\Ba’ \cdot (\BJ(\Bx’) x_i’ x_j’)
&=
\int dV’ \spacegrad’ \cdot (\BJ(\Bx’) x_i’ x_j’) \\
&=
+
\int dV’ \BJ \cdot \spacegrad’ (x_i’ x_j’) \\
&=
\int dV’ J_k \cdot \lr{ x_i’ \partial_k x_j’ + x_j’ \partial_k x_i’ } \\
&=
\int dV’ \lr{J_k x_i’ \delta_{kj} + J_k x_j’ \delta_{ki}} \\
&=
\int dV’ \lr{J_j x_i’ + J_i x_j’}.
\end{aligned}

The surface integral is once again zero, which means that we have an antisymmetric relationship in integrals of the form

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:200}
\int J_j x_i’ = -\int J_i x_j’.

Now we can use the tensor algebra trick of writing $$y = (y + y)/2$$,

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:220}
\begin{aligned}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’ \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int \lr{ J_i x_k’ + J_i x_k’ } \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int \lr{ J_i x_k’ – J_k x_i’ } \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int (\BJ \cross \Bx’)_j \epsilon_{ikj} \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ

\inv{2} \epsilon_{kij} \Be_k x_i \int (\BJ \cross \Bx’)_j \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ

\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \BJ \cross \Bx’ \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ \\
&=
-\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ,
\end{aligned}

so

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:240}
\BA(\Bx) \approx \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi \Abs{\Bx}^3} \lr{ -\frac{\Bx}{2} } \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.

Letting

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:260}
\boxed{
\Bm = \inv{2} \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’,
}

the far field approximation of the vector potential is
\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:280}
\boxed{
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\Bm \cross \Bx}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.
}

Note that when the current is restricted to an infintisimally thin loop, the magnetic moment reduces to

\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:300}
\Bm(\Bx) = \frac{I}{2} \int \Bx \cross d\Bl’.

Refering to [1] (pr. 1.60), this can be seen to be $$I$$ times the “vector-area” integral.

# References

[1] David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

[2] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

## Electric and magnetic fields at an interface

As pointed out in [1] the fields at an interface that is not a perfect conductor on either side are related by

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:20}
\begin{aligned}
\ncap \cdot \lr{ \BD_2 – \BD_1 } &= \rho_{es} \\
\ncap \cross \lr{ \BE_2 – \BE_1 } &= -\BM_s \\
\ncap \cdot \lr{ \BB_2 – \BB_1 } &= \rho_{ms} \\
\ncap \cross \lr{ \BH_2 – \BH_1 } &= \BJ_s.
\end{aligned}

Given the fields in medium 1, assuming that boths sets of media are linear, we can use these relationships to determine the fields in the other medium.

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:40}
\begin{aligned}
\ncap \cdot \BE_2 &= \inv{\epsilon_2} \lr{ \epsilon_1 \ncap \cdot \BE_1 + \rho_{es} } \\
\ncap \wedge \BE_2 &= \ncap \wedge \BE_1 -I \BM_s \\
\ncap \cdot \BB_2 &= \ncap \cdot \BB_1 + \rho_{ms} \\
\ncap \wedge \BB_2 &= \mu_2 \lr{ \inv{\mu_1} \ncap \wedge \BB_1 + I \BJ_s}.
\end{aligned}

Now the fields in interface 2 can be obtained by adding the normal and tangential projections. For the electric field

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:60}
\begin{aligned}
\BE_2
&=
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_2 )
+ \ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_2) \\
&=
\inv{\epsilon_2} \ncap \lr{ \epsilon_1 \ncap \cdot \BE_1 + \rho_{es} }
+
\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_1 -I \BM_s).
\end{aligned}

Note that this manipulation can also be done without Geometric Algebra by writing $$\BE_2 = \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_2 ) – \ncap \cross (\ncap \cross \BE_2)$$).
Expanding $$\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_1) = \BE_1 – \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_1)$$, and $$\ncap \cdot (I \BM_s) = -\ncap \cross \BM_s$$, that is

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:80}
\boxed{
\BE_2
=
\BE_1
+ \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_1) \lr{ \frac{\epsilon_1}{\epsilon_2} – 1 }
+ \frac{\rho_{es}}{\epsilon_2}
+ \ncap \cross \BM_s.
}

For the magnetic field

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:100}
\begin{aligned}
\BB_2
&=
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BB_2 )
+
\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BB_2) \\
&=
\ncap \lr{ \ncap \cdot \BB_1 + \rho_{ms} }
+
\mu_2 \ncap \cdot \lr{ \lr{ \inv{\mu_1} \ncap \wedge \BB_1 + I \BJ_s} },
\end{aligned}

which is

\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:120}
\boxed{
\BB_2
=
\frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1} \BB_1
+
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BB_1) \lr{ 1 – \frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1} }
+ \ncap \rho_{ms}
– \ncap \cross \BJ_s.
}

These are kind of pretty results, having none of the explicit angle dependence that we see in the Fresnel relationships. In this analysis, it is assumed there is only a transmitted component of the ray in question, and no reflected component. Can we do a purely vectoral treatment of the Fresnel equations along these same lines?

# References

[1] Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Green’s function inversion of the magnetostatic equation

A previous example of inverting a gradient equation was the electrostatics equation. We can do the same for the magnetostatics equation, which has the following Geometric Algebra form in linear media

\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:20}
\spacegrad I \BB = – \mu \BJ.

The Green’s inversion of this is
\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:40}
\begin{aligned}
I \BB(\Bx)
&= \int_V dV’ G(\Bx, \Bx’) \spacegrad’ I \BB(\Bx’) \\
&= \int_V dV’ G(\Bx, \Bx’) (-\mu \BJ(\Bx’)) \\
&= \inv{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 } (-\mu \BJ(\Bx’)).
\end{aligned}

We expect the LHS to be a bivector, so the scalar component of this should be zero. That can be demonstrated with some of the usual trickery
\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:60}
\begin{aligned}
-\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 } \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)
&= \frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \lr{ \spacegrad \inv{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} }} \cdot \BJ(\Bx’) \\
&= -\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \lr{ \spacegrad’ \inv{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} }} \cdot \BJ(\Bx’) \\
&= -\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \lr{
\spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} }

\frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} }
}.
\end{aligned}

The current $$\BJ$$ is not unconstrained. This can be seen by premultiplying \ref{eqn:biotSavartGreens:20} by the gradient

\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:80}

On the LHS we have a bivector so must have $$\spacegrad \BJ = \spacegrad \wedge \BJ$$, or $$\spacegrad \cdot \BJ = 0$$. This kills the $$\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)$$ integrand numerator in \ref{eqn:biotSavartGreens:60}, leaving

\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:100}
\begin{aligned}
-\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 } \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)
&= -\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} } \\
&= -\frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_{\partial V} dA’ \ncap \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} }.
\end{aligned}

This shows that the scalar part of the equation is zero, provided the normal component of $$\BJ/\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}$$ vanishes on the boundary of the infinite sphere. This leaves the Biot-Savart law as a bivector equation

\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:120}
I \BB(\Bx)
= \frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \BJ(\Bx’) \wedge \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 }.

Observe that the traditional vector form of the Biot-Savart law can be obtained by premultiplying both sides with $$-I$$, leaving

\label{eqn:biotSavartGreens:140}
\BB(\Bx)
= \frac{\mu}{4\pi} \int_V dV’ \BJ(\Bx’) \cross \frac{\Bx – \Bx’}{ \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3 }.

This checks against a trusted source such as [1] (eq. 5.39).

# References

[1] David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

## Constant magnetic solenoid field

September 24, 2015 phy1520 No comments , , , , ,

In [2] the following vector potential

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:20}
\BA = \frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho} \phicap,

is introduced in a discussion on the Aharonov-Bohm effect, for configurations where the interior field of a solenoid is either a constant $$\BB$$ or zero.

I wasn’t able to make sense of this since the field I was calculating was zero for all $$\rho \ne 0$$

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:40}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&= \lr{ \rhocap \partial_\rho + \zcap \partial_z + \frac{\phicap}{\rho}
\partial_\phi } \cross \frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho} \phicap \\
&= \lr{ \rhocap \partial_\rho + \frac{\phicap}{\rho} \partial_\phi } \cross
\frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho} \phicap \\
&=
\frac{B \rho_a^2}{2}
\rhocap \cross \phicap \partial_\rho \lr{ \inv{\rho} }
+
\frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho}
\frac{\phicap}{\rho} \cross \partial_\phi \phicap \\
&=
\frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho^2} \lr{ -\zcap + \phicap \cross \partial_\phi \phicap}.
\end{aligned}

Note that the $$\rho$$ partial requires that $$\rho \ne 0$$. To expand the cross product in the second term let $$j = \Be_1 \Be_2$$, and expand using a Geometric Algebra representation of the unit vector

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:60}
\begin{aligned}
\phicap \cross \partial_\phi \phicap
&=
\Be_2 e^{j \phi} \cross \lr{ \Be_2 \Be_1 \Be_2 e^{j \phi} } \\
&=
– \Be_1 \Be_2 \Be_3
\Be_2 e^{j \phi} (-\Be_1) e^{j \phi}
} \\
&=
\Be_1 \Be_2 \Be_3 \Be_2 \Be_1 \\
&= \Be_3 \\
&= \zcap.
\end{aligned}

So, provided $$\rho \ne 0$$, $$\BB = 0$$.

The errata [1] provides the clarification, showing that a $$\rho > \rho_a$$ constraint is required for this potential to produce the desired results. Continuity at $$\rho = \rho_a$$ means that in the interior (or at least on the boundary) we must have one of

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:80}
\BA = \frac{B \rho_a}{2} \phicap,

or

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:100}
\BA = \frac{B \rho}{2} \phicap.

The first doesn’t work, but the second does

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:120}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&= \lr{ \rhocap \partial_\rho + \zcap \partial_z + \frac{\phicap}{\rho}
\partial_\phi } \cross \frac{B \rho}{2 } \phicap \\
&=
\frac{B }{2 } \rhocap \cross \phicap
+
\frac{B \rho}{2 }
\frac{\phicap}{\rho} \cross \partial_\phi \phicap \\
&= B \zcap.
\end{aligned}

So the vector potential that we want for a constant $$B \zcap$$ field in the interior $$\rho < \rho_a$$ of a cylindrical space, we need

\label{eqn:solenoidConstantField:140}
\BA =
\left\{
\begin{array}{l l}
\frac{B \rho_a^2}{2 \rho} \phicap & \quad \mbox{if $$\rho \ge \rho_a$$ } \\
\frac{B \rho}{2} \phicap & \quad \mbox{if $$\rho \le \rho_a$$.}
\end{array}
\right.

An example of the magnitude of potential is graphed in fig. 1.

fig. 1. Vector potential for constant field in cylindrical region.

# References

[1] Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. \emph{Errata: Typographical Errors, Mistakes, and Comments, Modern Quantum Mechanics, 2nd Edition}, 2013. URL http://www.rpi.edu/dept/phys/Courses/PHYS6520/Spring2015/ErrataMQM.pdf.

[2] Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. Modern quantum mechanics. Pearson Higher Ed, 2014.