## Solving Maxwell’s equation in freespace: Multivector plane wave representation

The geometric algebra form of Maxwell’s equations in free space (or source free isotopic media with group velocity $$c$$) is the multivector equation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:20}
\lr{ \spacegrad + \inv{c}\PD{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}
Here $$F = \BE + I c \BB$$ is a multivector with grades 1 and 2 (vector and bivector components). The velocity $$c$$ is called the group velocity since $$F$$, or its components $$\BE, \BH$$ satisfy the wave equation, which can be seen by pre-multiplying with $$\spacegrad – (1/c)\PDi{t}{}$$ to find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:n}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 – \inv{c^2}\PDSq{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}

Let’s look at the frequency domain solution of this equation with a presumed phasor representation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:40}
F(\Bx, t) = \textrm{Re} \lr{ F(\Bk) e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t} },
\end{equation}
where $$j$$ is a scalar imaginary, not necessarily with any geometric interpretation.

Maxwell’s equation reduces to just
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:60}
0
=
-j \lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} } F(\Bk).
\end{equation}

If $$F(\Bk)$$ has a left multivector factor
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:80}
F(\Bk) =
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F},
\end{equation}
where $$\tilde{F}$$ is a multivector to be determined, then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:100}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F} \\
&=
\lr{ \Bk^2 – \lr{\frac{\omega}{c}}^2 } \tilde{F},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which is zero if $$\Norm{\Bk} = \ifrac{\omega}{c}$$.

Let $$\kcap = \ifrac{\Bk}{\Norm{\Bk}}$$, and $$\Norm{\Bk} \tilde{F} = F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3$$, where $$F_0, F_1, F_2,$$ and $$F_3$$ are respectively have grades 0,1,2,3. Then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:120}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&= \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 } \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap F_1 + \kcap F_2 + \kcap F_3 \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1 + \kcap \cdot F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3
+
\kcap \wedge F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_2 \\
&=
\lr{
F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_1 + \kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}
+
\lr{
F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
Since the field $$F$$ has only vector and bivector grades, the grades zero and three components of the expansion above must be zero, or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:140}
\begin{aligned}
F_0 &= – \kcap \cdot F_1 \\
F_3 &= – \kcap \wedge F_2,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:160}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap \cdot F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap \wedge F_2
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
The multivector $$1 + \kcap$$ has the projective property of gobbling any leading factors of $$\kcap$$
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:180}
\begin{aligned}
(1 + \kcap)\kcap
&= \kcap + 1 \\
&= 1 + \kcap,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so for $$F_i \in F_1, F_2$$
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:200}
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – \kcap F_i )
=
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – F_i )
= 0,
\end{equation}
leaving
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:220}
F(\Bk)
=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
\kcap \cdot F_2 +
\kcap \wedge F_1
}.
\end{equation}

For $$\kcap \cdot F_2$$ to be non-zero $$F_2$$ must be a bivector that lies in a plane containing $$\kcap$$, and $$\kcap \cdot F_2$$ is a vector in that plane that is perpendicular to $$\kcap$$. On the other hand $$\kcap \wedge F_1$$ is non-zero only if $$F_1$$ has a non-zero component that does not lie in along the $$\kcap$$ direction, but $$\kcap \wedge F_1$$, like $$F_2$$ describes a plane that containing $$\kcap$$. This means that having both bivector and vector free variables $$F_2$$ and $$F_1$$ provide more degrees of freedom than required. For example, if $$\BE$$ is any vector, and $$F_2 = \kcap \wedge \BE$$, then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:240}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot F_2
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\lr{
\BE

\kcap \lr{ \kcap \cdot \BE }
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \wedge \BE,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which has the form $$\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ \kcap \wedge F_1 }$$, so the solution of the free space Maxwell’s equation can be written
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:260}
\boxed{
F(\Bx, t)
=
\textrm{Re} \lr{
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\BE\,
e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t}
}
,
}
\end{equation}
where $$\BE$$ is any vector for which $$\BE \cdot \Bk = 0$$.

## Plane wave and spinor under time reversal

### Q:  pr 4.7

1. (a)
Find the time reversed form of a spinless plane wave state in three dimensions.

2. (b)
For the eigenspinor of $$\Bsigma \cdot \ncap$$ expressed in terms of polar and azimuthal angles $$\beta$$ and $$\gamma$$, show that $$-i \sigma_y \chi^\conj(\ncap)$$ has the reversed spin direction.

### A: part (a)

The Hamiltonian for a plane wave is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:20}
H = \frac{\Bp^2}{2m} = i \PD{t}.
\end{equation}

Under time reversal the momentum side transforms as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:40}
\begin{aligned}
\Theta \frac{\Bp^2}{2m} \Theta^{-1}
&=
\frac{\lr{ \Theta \Bp \Theta^{-1}} \cdot \lr{ \Theta \Bp \Theta^{-1}} }{2m} \\
&=
\frac{(-\Bp) \cdot (-\Bp)}{2m} \\
&=
\frac{\Bp^2}{2m}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The time derivative side of the equation is also time reversal invariant
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:60}
\begin{aligned}
\Theta i \PD{t}{} \Theta^{-1}
&=
\Theta i \Theta^{-1} \Theta \PD{t}{} \Theta^{-1} \\
&=
-i \PD{(-t)}{} \\
&=
i \PD{t}{}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Solutions to this equation are linear combinations of

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:80}
\psi(\Bx, t) = e^{i \Bk \cdot \Bx – i E t/\Hbar},
\end{equation}

where $$\Hbar^2 \Bk^2/2m = E$$, the energy of the particle. Under time reversal we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:100}
\begin{aligned}
\psi(\Bx, t)
\rightarrow e^{-i \Bk \cdot \Bx + i E (-t)/\Hbar}
&= \lr{ e^{i \Bk \cdot \Bx – i E (-t)/\Hbar} }^\conj \\
&=
\psi^\conj(\Bx, -t)
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

### A: part (b)

The text uses a requirement for time reversal of spin states to show that the Pauli matrix form of the time reversal operator is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:120}
\Theta = -i \sigma_y K,
\end{equation}

where $$K$$ is a complex conjugating operator. The form of the spin up state used in that demonstration was

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:140}
\begin{aligned}
\ket{\ncap ; +}
&= e^{-i S_z \beta/\Hbar} e^{-i S_y \gamma/\Hbar} \ket{+} \\
&= e^{-i \sigma_z \beta/2} e^{-i \sigma_y \gamma/2} \ket{+} \\
&= \lr{ \cos(\beta/2) – i \sigma_z \sin(\beta/2) }
\lr{ \cos(\gamma/2) – i \sigma_y \sin(\gamma/2) } \ket{+} \\
&= \lr{ \cos(\beta/2) – i \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \\ \end{bmatrix} \sin(\beta/2) }
\lr{ \cos(\gamma/2) – i \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i \\ i & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix} \sin(\gamma/2) } \ket{+} \\
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
e^{-i\beta/2} & 0 \\
0 & e^{i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos(\gamma/2) & -\sin(\gamma/2) \\
\sin(\gamma/2) & \cos(\gamma/2)
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
1 \\
0
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
e^{-i\beta/2} & 0 \\
0 & e^{i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos(\gamma/2) \\
\sin(\gamma/2) \\
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos(\gamma/2)
e^{-i\beta/2}
\\
\sin(\gamma/2)
e^{i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The state orthogonal to this one is claimed to be

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:180}
\begin{aligned}
\ket{\ncap ; -}
&= e^{-i S_z \beta/\Hbar} e^{-i S_y (\gamma + \pi)/\Hbar} \ket{+} \\
&= e^{-i \sigma_z \beta/2} e^{-i \sigma_y (\gamma + \pi)/2} \ket{+}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:200}
\begin{aligned}
\cos((\gamma + \pi)/2)
&=
\textrm{Re} e^{i(\gamma + \pi)/2} \\
&=
\textrm{Re} i e^{i\gamma/2} \\
&=
-\sin(\gamma/2),
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

and
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:220}
\begin{aligned}
\sin((\gamma + \pi)/2)
&=
\textrm{Im} e^{i(\gamma + \pi)/2} \\
&=
\textrm{Im} i e^{i\gamma/2} \\
&=
\cos(\gamma/2),
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so we should have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:240}
\ket{\ncap ; -}
=
\begin{bmatrix}
-\sin(\gamma/2)
e^{-i\beta/2}
\\
\cos(\gamma/2)
e^{i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{equation}

This looks right, but we can sanity check orthogonality

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:260}
\begin{aligned}
\braket{\ncap ; -}{\ncap ; +}
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
-\sin(\gamma/2)
e^{i\beta/2}
&
\cos(\gamma/2)
e^{-i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos(\gamma/2)
e^{-i\beta/2}
\\
\sin(\gamma/2)
e^{i \beta/2}
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
0,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

as expected.

The task at hand appears to be the operation on the column representation of $$\ket{\ncap; +}$$ using the Pauli representation of the time reversal operator. That is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:timeReversalPlaneWaveAndSpinor:160}
\begin{aligned}
\Theta \ket{\ncap ; +}
&=
-i \sigma_y K
\begin{bmatrix}
e^{-i\beta/2} \cos(\gamma/2) \\
e^{i \beta/2} \sin(\gamma/2)
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
-i \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -i \\ i & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
e^{i\beta/2} \cos(\gamma/2) \\
e^{-i \beta/2} \sin(\gamma/2)
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \\
1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
e^{i\beta/2} \cos(\gamma/2) \\
e^{-i \beta/2} \sin(\gamma/2)
\end{bmatrix} \\
&=
\begin{bmatrix}
-e^{-i \beta/2} \sin(\gamma/2) \\
e^{i\beta/2} \cos(\gamma/2) \\
\end{bmatrix} \\
&= \ket{\ncap ; -},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which is the result to be demononstrated.

# References

 Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. Modern quantum mechanics. Pearson Higher Ed, 2014.

## PHY1520H Graduate Quantum Mechanics. Lecture 10: 1D Dirac scattering off potential step. Taught by Prof. Arun Paramekanti

October 20, 2015 phy1520 No comments , ,

### Disclaimer

Peeter’s lecture notes from class. These may be incoherent and rough.

These are notes for the UofT course PHY1520, Graduate Quantum Mechanics, taught by Prof. Paramekanti.

### Dirac scattering off a potential step

For the non-relativistic case we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:20}
\begin{aligned}
E < V_0 &\Rightarrow T = 0, R = 1 \\ E > V_0 &\Rightarrow T > 0, R < 1.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

What happens for a relativistic 1D particle?

Referring to fig. 1.

the region I Hamiltonian is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:40}
H =
\begin{bmatrix}
\hat{p} c & m c^2 \\
m c^2 & – \hat{p} c
\end{bmatrix},
\end{equation}

for which the solution is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:60}
\Phi = e^{i k_1 x }
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos \theta_1 \\
\sin \theta_1
\end{bmatrix},
\end{equation}

where
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:80}
\begin{aligned}
\cos 2 \theta_1 &= \frac{ \Hbar c k_1 }{E_{k_1}} \\
\sin 2 \theta_1 &= \frac{ m c^2 }{E_{k_1}} \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

To consider the $$k_1 < 0$$ case, note that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:100}
\begin{aligned}
\cos^2 \theta_1 – \sin^2 \theta_1 &= \cos 2 \theta_1 \\
2 \sin\theta_1 \cos\theta_1 &= \sin 2 \theta_1
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so after flipping the signs on all the $$k_1$$ terms we find for the reflected wave

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:120}
\Phi = e^{-i k_1 x}
\begin{bmatrix}
\sin\theta_1 \\
\cos\theta_1
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{equation}

FIXME: this reasoning doesn’t entirely make sense to me. Make sense of this by trying this solution as was done for the form of the incident wave solution.

The region I wave has the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:140}
\Phi_I
=
A e^{i k_1 x}
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos\theta_1 \\
\sin\theta_1 \\
\end{bmatrix}
+
B e^{-i k_1 x}
\begin{bmatrix}
\sin\theta_1 \\
\cos\theta_1 \\
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{equation}

By the time we are done we want to have computed the reflection coefficient

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:160}
R =
\frac{\Abs{B}^2}{\Abs{A}^2}.
\end{equation}

The region I energy is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:180}
E = \sqrt{ \lr{ m c^2}^2 + \lr{ \Hbar c k_1 }^2 }.
\end{equation}

We must have
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:200}
E
=
\sqrt{ \lr{ m c^2}^2 + \lr{ \Hbar c k_2 }^2 } + V_0
=
\sqrt{ \lr{ m c^2}^2 + \lr{ \Hbar c k_1 }^2 },
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:220}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \Hbar c k_2 }^2
&=
\lr{ E – V_0 }^2 – \lr{ m c^2}^2 \\
&=
\underbrace{\lr{ E – V_0 + m c }}_{r_1}\underbrace{\lr{ E – V_0 – m c }}_{r_2}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The $$r_1$$ and $$r_2$$ branches are sketched in fig. 2.

For low energies, we have a set of potentials for which we will have propagation, despite having a potential barrier. For still higher values of the potential barrier the product $$r_1 r_2$$ will be negative, so the solutions will be decaying. Finally, for even higher energies, there will again be propagation.

The non-relativistic case is sketched in fig. 3.

For the relativistic case we must consider three different cases, sketched in fig 4, fig 5, and fig 6 respectively. For the low potential energy, a particle with positive group velocity (what we’ve called right moving) can be matched to an equal energy portion of the potential shifted parabola in region II. This is a case where we have transmission, but no antiparticle creation. There will be an energy region where the region II wave function has only a dissipative term, since there is no region of either of the region II parabolic branches available at the incident energy. When the potential is shifted still higher so that $$V_0 > E + m c^2$$, a positive group velocity in region I with a given energy can be matched to an antiparticle branch in the region II parabolic energy curve.

### Boundary value conditions

We want to ensure that the current across the barrier is conserved (no particles are lost), as sketched in fig. 7.

Recall that given a wave function

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:240}
\Psi =
\begin{bmatrix}
\psi_1 \\
\psi_2
\end{bmatrix},
\end{equation}

the density and currents are respectively

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:260}
\begin{aligned}
\rho &= \psi_1^\conj \psi_1 + \psi_2^\conj \psi_2 \\
j &= \psi_1^\conj \psi_1 – \psi_2^\conj \psi_2
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Matching boundary value conditions requires

1. For both the relativistic and non-relativistic cases we must have\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:280}
\Psi_{\textrm{L}} = \Psi_{\textrm{R}}, \qquad \mbox{at $$x = 0$$.}
\end{equation}
2. For the non-relativistic case we want
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:300}
\int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon -\frac{\Hbar^2}{2m} \PDSq{x}{\Psi} =
{\int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon \lr{ E – V(x) } \Psi(x)}.
\end{equation}The RHS integral is zero, so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:320}
-\frac{\Hbar^2}{2m} \lr{ \evalbar{\PD{x}{\Psi}}{{\textrm{R}}} – \evalbar{\PD{x}{\Psi}}{{\textrm{L}}} } = 0.
\end{equation}

We have to match

For the relativistic case

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:460}
-i \Hbar \sigma_z \int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon \PD{x}{\Psi} +
{m c^2 \sigma_x \int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon \psi}
=
{\int_{-\epsilon}^\epsilon \lr{ E – V_0 } \psi},
\end{equation}

the second two integrals are wiped out, so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:340}
-i \Hbar c \sigma_z \lr{ \psi(\epsilon) – \psi(-\epsilon) }
=
-i \Hbar c \sigma_z \lr{ \psi_{\textrm{R}} – \psi_{\textrm{L}} }.
\end{equation}

so we must match

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:360}
\sigma_z \psi_{\textrm{R}} = \sigma_z \psi_{\textrm{L}} .
\end{equation}

It appears that things are simpler, because we only have to match the wave function values at the boundary, and don’t have to match the derivatives too. However, we have a two component wave function, so there are still two tasks.

### Solving the system

Let’s look for a solution for the $$E + m c^2 > V_0$$ case on the right branch, as sketched in fig. 8.

While the right branch in this case is left going, this might work out since that is an antiparticle. We could try both.

Try

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:480}
\Psi_{II} = D e^{i k_2 x}
\begin{bmatrix}
-\sin\theta_2 \\
\cos\theta_2
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{equation}

This is justified by

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:500}
+E \rightarrow
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos\theta \\
\sin\theta
\end{bmatrix},
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:520}
-E \rightarrow
\begin{bmatrix}
-\sin\theta \\
\cos\theta \\
\end{bmatrix}
\end{equation}

At $$x = 0$$ the exponentials vanish, so equating the waves at that point means

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:380}
\begin{bmatrix}
\cos\theta_1 \\
\sin\theta_1 \\
\end{bmatrix}
+
\frac{B}{A}
\begin{bmatrix}
\sin\theta_1 \\
\cos\theta_1 \\
\end{bmatrix}
=
\frac{D}{A}
\begin{bmatrix}
-\sin\theta_2 \\
\cos\theta_2
\end{bmatrix}.
\end{equation}

Solving this yields

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:400}
\frac{B}{A} = – \frac{\cos(\theta_1 – \theta_2)}{\sin(\theta_1 + \theta_2)}.
\end{equation}

This yields

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:420}
\boxed{
R = \frac{1 + \cos( 2 \theta_1 – 2 \theta_2) }{1 – \cos( 2 \theta_1 – 2 \theta_2)}.
}
\end{equation}

As $$V_0 \rightarrow \infty$$ this simplifies to

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:qmLecture10:440}
R = \frac{ E – \sqrt{ E^2 – \lr{ m c^2 }^2 } }{ E + \sqrt{ E^2 – \lr{ m c^2 }^2 } }.
\end{equation}

Filling in the details for these results part of problem set 4.

## Second update of aggregate notes for phy1520, Graduate Quantum Mechanics

I’ve posted a second update of my aggregate notes for PHY1520H Graduate Quantum Mechanics, taught by Prof. Arun Paramekanti. In addition to what was noted previously, this contains lecture notes up to lecture 9, my ungraded solutions for the second problem set, and some additional worked practise problems.

Most of the content was posted individually in the following locations, but those original documents will not be maintained individually any further.

## Plane wave ground state expectation for SHO

Problem  2.18 is, for a 1D SHO, show that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:20}
\bra{0} e^{i k x} \ket{0} = \exp\lr{ -k^2 \bra{0} x^2 \ket{0}/2 }.
\end{equation}

Despite the simple appearance of this problem, I found this quite involved to show. To do so, start with a series expansion of the expectation

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:40}
\bra{0} e^{i k x} \ket{0}
=
\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(i k)^m}{m!} \bra{0} x^m \ket{0}.
\end{equation}

Let

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:60}
X = \lr{ a + a^\dagger },
\end{equation}

so that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:80}
x
= \sqrt{\frac{\Hbar}{2 \omega m}} X
= \frac{x_0}{\sqrt{2}} X.
\end{equation}

Consider the first few values of $$\bra{0} X^n \ket{0}$$

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:100}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X \ket{0}
&=
\bra{0} \lr{ a + a^\dagger } \ket{0} \\
&=
\braket{0}{1} \\
&=
0,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:120}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X^2 \ket{0}
&=
\bra{0} \lr{ a + a^\dagger }^2 \ket{0} \\
&=
\braket{1}{1} \\
&=
1,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:140}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X^3 \ket{0}
&=
\bra{0} \lr{ a + a^\dagger }^3 \ket{0} \\
&=
\bra{1} \lr{ \sqrt{2} \ket{2} + \ket{0} } \\
&=
0.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Whenever the power $$n$$ in $$X^n$$ is even, the braket can be split into a bra that has only contributions from odd eigenstates and a ket with even eigenstates. We conclude that $$\bra{0} X^n \ket{0} = 0$$ when $$n$$ is odd.

Noting that $$\bra{0} x^2 \ket{0} = \ifrac{x_0^2}{2}$$, this leaves

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:160}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} e^{i k x} \ket{0}
&=
\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(i k)^{2 m}}{(2 m)!} \bra{0} x^{2m} \ket{0} \\
&=
\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(i k)^{2 m}}{(2 m)!} \lr{ \frac{x_0^2}{2} }^m \bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0} \\
&=
\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(2 m)!} \lr{ -k^2 \bra{0} x^2 \ket{0} }^m \bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This problem is now reduced to showing that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:180}
\frac{1}{(2 m)!} \bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0} = \inv{m! 2^m},
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:200}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}
&= \frac{(2m)!}{m! 2^m} \\
&= \frac{ (2m)(2m-1)(2m-2) \cdots (2)(1) }{2^m m!} \\
&= \frac{ 2^m (m)(2m-1)(m-1)(2m-3)(m-2) \cdots (2)(3)(1)(1) }{2^m m!} \\
&= (2m-1)!!,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

where $$n!! = n(n-2)(n-4)\cdots$$.

It looks like $$\bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}$$ can be expanded by inserting an identity operator and proceeding recursively, like

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:220}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}
&=
\bra{0} X^2 \lr{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty \ket{n}\bra{n} } X^{2m-2} \ket{0} \\
&=
\bra{0} X^2 \lr{ \ket{0}\bra{0} + \ket{2}\bra{2} } X^{2m-2} \ket{0} \\
&=
\bra{0} X^{2m-2} \ket{0} + \bra{0} X^2 \ket{2} \bra{2} X^{2m-2} \ket{0}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This has made use of the observation that $$\bra{0} X^2 \ket{n} = 0$$ for all $$n \ne 0,2$$. The remaining term includes the factor

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:240}
\begin{aligned}
\bra{0} X^2 \ket{2}
&=
\bra{0} \lr{a + a^\dagger}^2 \ket{2} \\
&=
\lr{ \bra{0} + \sqrt{2} \bra{2} } \ket{2} \\
&=
\sqrt{2},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Since $$\sqrt{2} \ket{2} = \lr{a^\dagger}^2 \ket{0}$$, the expectation of interest can be written

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:260}
\bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}
=
\bra{0} X^{2m-2} \ket{0} + \bra{0} a^2 X^{2m-2} \ket{0}.
\end{equation}

How do we expand the second term. Let’s look at how $$a$$ and $$X$$ commute

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:280}
\begin{aligned}
a X
&=
\antisymmetric{a}{X} + X a \\
&=
\antisymmetric{a}{a + a^\dagger} + X a \\
&=
\antisymmetric{a}{a^\dagger} + X a \\
&=
1 + X a,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:300}
\begin{aligned}
a^2 X
&=
a \lr{ a X } \\
&=
a \lr{ 1 + X a } \\
&=
a + a X a \\
&=
a + \lr{ 1 + X a } a \\
&=
2 a + X a^2.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Proceeding to expand $$a^2 X^n$$ we find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:320}
\begin{aligned}
a^2 X^3 &= 6 X + 6 X^2 a + X^3 a^2 \\
a^2 X^4 &= 12 X^2 + 8 X^3 a + X^4 a^2 \\
a^2 X^5 &= 20 X^3 + 10 X^4 a + X^5 a^2 \\
a^2 X^6 &= 30 X^4 + 12 X^5 a + X^6 a^2.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

It appears that we have
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:340}
\antisymmetric{a^2 X^n}{X^n a^2} = \beta_n X^{n-2} + 2 n X^{n-1} a,
\end{equation}

where

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:360}
\beta_n = \beta_{n-1} + 2 (n-1),
\end{equation}

and $$\beta_2 = 2$$. Some goofing around shows that $$\beta_n = n(n-1)$$, so the induction hypothesis is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:380}
\antisymmetric{a^2 X^n}{X^n a^2} = n(n-1) X^{n-2} + 2 n X^{n-1} a.
\end{equation}

Let’s check the induction
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:400}
\begin{aligned}
a^2 X^{n+1}
&=
a^2 X^{n} X \\
&=
\lr{ n(n-1) X^{n-2} + 2 n X^{n-1} a + X^n a^2 } X \\
&=
n(n-1) X^{n-1} + 2 n X^{n-1} a X + X^n a^2 X \\
&=
n(n-1) X^{n-1} + 2 n X^{n-1} \lr{ 1 + X a } + X^n \lr{ 2 a + X a^2 } \\
&=
n(n-1) X^{n-1} + 2 n X^{n-1} + 2 n X^{n} a
+ 2 X^n a
+ X^{n+1} a^2 \\
&=
X^{n+1} a^2 + (2 + 2 n) X^{n} a + \lr{ 2 n + n(n-1) } X^{n-1} \\
&=
X^{n+1} a^2 + 2(n + 1) X^{n} a + (n+1) n X^{n-1},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which concludes the induction, giving

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:420}
\bra{ 0 } a^2 X^{n} \ket{0 } = n(n-1) \bra{0} X^{n-2} \ket{0},
\end{equation}

and

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:440}
\bra{0} X^{2m} \ket{0}
=
\bra{0} X^{2m-2} \ket{0} + (2m-2)(2m-3) \bra{0} X^{2m-4} \ket{0}.
\end{equation}

Let

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:460}
\sigma_{n} = \bra{0} X^n \ket{0},
\end{equation}

so that the recurrence relation, for $$2n \ge 4$$ is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:480}
\sigma_{2n} = \sigma_{2n -2} + (2n-2)(2n-3) \sigma_{2n -4}
\end{equation}

We want to show that this simplifies to

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:500}
\sigma_{2n} = (2n-1)!!
\end{equation}

The first values are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:540}
\sigma_0 = \bra{0} X^0 \ket{0} = 1
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:560}
\sigma_2 = \bra{0} X^2 \ket{0} = 1
\end{equation}

which gives us the right result for the first term in the induction

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:580}
\begin{aligned}
\sigma_4
&= \sigma_2 + 2 \times 1 \times \sigma_0 \\
&= 1 + 2 \\
&= 3!!
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For the general induction term, consider

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:exponentialExpectationGroundState:600}
\begin{aligned}
\sigma_{2n + 2}
&= \sigma_{2n} + 2 n (2n – 1) \sigma_{2n -2} \\
&= (2n-1)!! + 2n ( 2n – 1) (2n -3)!! \\
&= (2n + 1) (2n -1)!! \\
&= (2n + 1)!!,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which completes the final induction. That was also the last thing required to complete the proof, so we are done!

# References

 Jun John Sakurai and Jim J Napolitano. Modern quantum mechanics. Pearson Higher Ed, 2014.

## Plane wave solution directly from Maxwell’s equations

Here’s a problem that I thought was fun, an exercise for the reader to show that the plane wave solution to Maxwell’s equations can be found with ease directly from Maxwell’s equations. This is in contrast to the what seems like the usual method of first showing that Maxwell’s equations imply wave equations for the fields, and then solving those wave equations.

## Problem. $$\xcap$$ oriented plane wave electric field ( ex. 4.1)

A uniform plane wave having only an $$x$$ component of the electric field is traveling in the $$+ z$$ direction in an unbounded lossless, source-0free region. Using Maxwell’s equations write expressions for the electric and corresponding magnetic field intensities.

The phasor form of Maxwell’s equations for a source free region are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}
\spacegrad \cross \BE = -j \omega \BB
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}
\spacegrad \cross \BH = j \omega \BD
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:80}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:100}
\end{equation}

Since $$\BE = \xcap E(z)$$, the magnetic field follows from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:120}
-j \omega \BB
=
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
E & 0 & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
\ycap \partial_z E(z)
– \zcap \partial_y E(z),
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140}
\BB =
-\inv{j \omega} \partial_z E.
\end{equation}

This is constrained by \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:160}
j \omega \epsilon \xcap E
=
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
0 & \partial_z E & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\lr{
-\xcap \partial_{z z} E
+ \zcap \partial_x \partial_z E
}
\end{equation}

Since $$\partial_x \partial_z E = \partial_z \lr{ \partial_x E } = \partial_z \inv{\epsilon} \spacegrad \cdot \BD = \partial_z 0$$, this means

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:180}
\partial_{zz} E = -\omega^2 \epsilon\mu E = -k^2 E.
\end{equation}

This is the usual starting place that we use to show that the plane wave has an exponential form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:200}
\BE(z) =
\xcap
\lr{
E_{+} e^{-j k z}
+
E_{-} e^{j k z}
}.
\end{equation}

The magnetic field from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140} is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:220}
\BB
= \frac{j}{\omega} \lr{ -j k E_{+} e^{-j k z} + j k E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} },
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:240}
\BH
= \inv{\mu c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{\eta} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }.
\end{equation}

A solution requires zero divergence for the magnetic field, but that can be seen to be the case by inspection.

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Updated notes for ece1229 antenna theory I’ve now posted a first update of my notes for the antenna theory course that I am taking this term at UofT.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides which go by faster than I can easily take notes for (and some of which match the textbook closely). In class I have annotated my copy of textbook with little details instead. This set of notes contains musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book), as well as some notes Geometric Algebra formalism for Maxwell’s equations with magnetic sources (something I’ve encountered for the first time in any real detail in this class).

The notes compilation linked above includes all of the following separate notes, some of which have been posted separately on this blog:

## Notes for Balantis chapter 4: linear wire antennas.

These are notes for the UofT course ECE1229, Advanced Antenna Theory, taught by Prof. Eleftheriades, covering ch. 4  content.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides that match the textbook so closely, there is little value to me taking notes that just replicate the text. Instead, I am annotating my copy of textbook with little details instead. My usual notes collection for the class will contain musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book.)

## Magnetic Vector Potential.

In class and in the problem set $$\BA$$ was referred to as the Magnetic Vector Potential.  I only recalled this referred to as the Vector Potential.  Prefixing this with magnetic seemed counter intuitive to me since it is generated by electric sources (charges and currents).
This terminology can be justified due to the fact that $$\BA$$ generates the magnetic field by its curl. Some mention of this can be found in , which also points out that the Electric Potential refers to the scalar $$\phi$$. Prof. Eleftheriades points out that Electric Vector Potential refers to the vector potential $$\BF$$ generated by magnetic sources (because in that case the electric field is generated by the curl of $$\BF$$.)

## Plots of infinitesimal dipole radial dependence.

In section 4.2 of  are some discussions of the $$kr < 1$$, $$kr = 1$$, and $$kr > 1$$ radial dependence of the fields and power of a solution to an infinitesimal dipole system. Here are some plots of those $$k r$$ dependence, along with the $$k r = 1$$ contour as a reference. All the $$\theta$$ dependence and any scaling is left out.

The CDF notebook visualizeDipoleFields.cdf is available to interactively plot these, rotate the plots and change the ranges of what is plotted.

A plot of the real and imaginary parts of $$H_\phi = \frac{j k}{r} e^{-j k r} \lr{ 1-\frac{j}{k r} }$$ can be found in fig. 1 and fig. 2.

A plot of the real and imaginary parts of $$E_r = \inv{r^2} \lr{1-\frac{j}{k r}} e^{-j k r}$$ can be found in fig. 3 and fig. 4.

Finally, a plot of the real and imaginary parts of $$E_\theta = \frac{ j k }{r} \lr{1 -\frac{j}{k r} -\frac{1}{k^2 r^2} } e^{-j k r}$$ can be found in fig. 5 and fig. 6.

## Electric Far field for a spherical potential.

It is interesting to look at the far electric field associated with an arbitrary spherical magnetic vector potential, assuming all of the radial dependence is in the spherical envelope. That is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:20}
\BA = \frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \lr{
\rcap a_r\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\thetacap a_\theta\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\phicap a_\phi\lr{ \theta, \phi }
}.
\end{equation}

The electric field is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:40}
\BE = – j \omega \BA – j \frac{1}{\omega \mu_0 \epsilon_0 } \spacegrad \lr{\spacegrad \cdot \BA }.
\end{equation}

The divergence and gradient in spherical coordinates are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:80}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\inv{r^2} \PD{r}{} \lr{ r^2 A_r }
+ \inv{r \sin\theta } \PD{\theta}{} \lr{A_\theta \sin\theta}
+ \inv{r \sin\theta } \PD{\phi}{A_\phi}
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:100}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\rcap \PD{r}{\psi}
+\frac{\thetacap}{r} \PD{\theta}{\psi}
+ \frac{\phicap}{r \sin\theta} \PD{\phi}{\psi}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For the assumed potential, the divergence is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:120}
\begin{aligned}
&=
\frac{a_r}{r^2} \PD{r}{} \lr{ r^2 \frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} }
+ \inv{r \sin\theta } \frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \PD{\theta}{} \lr{\sin\theta a_\theta}
+ \inv{r \sin\theta } \frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \PD{\phi}{a_\phi} \\
&=
a_r
e^{-j k r}
\lr{
\inv{r^2}
-j k \inv{r}
}
+ \inv{r^2 \sin\theta } e^{-j k r} \PD{\theta}{} \lr{\sin\theta a_\theta}
+ \inv{r^2 \sin\theta } e^{-j k r} \PD{\phi}{a_\phi} \\
&\approx
-j k \frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The last approximation dropped all the $$1/r^2$$ terms that will be small compared to $$1/r$$ contribution that dominates when $$r \rightarrow \infty$$, the far field.

The gradient can now be computed

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:140}
\begin{aligned}
&\approx
-j k
\lr{
\frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r}
} \\
&=
-j k \lr{
\rcap \PD{r}{}
+\frac{\thetacap}{r} \PD{\theta}{}
+ \frac{\phicap}{r \sin\theta} \PD{\phi}{}
}
\frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r} \\
&=
-j k \lr{
\rcap a_r \PD{r}{} \lr{
\frac{1}{r}
e^{-j k r}
}
+\frac{\thetacap}{r^2}
e^{-j k r}
\PD{\theta}{a_r}
+
e^{-j k r}
\frac{\phicap}{r^2 \sin\theta}
\PD{\phi}{a_r}
} \\
&=
-j k \lr{
-\rcap \frac{a_r}{r^2} \lr{
1
+ j k r
}
+\frac{\thetacap}{r^2}
\PD{\theta}{a_r}
+
\frac{\phicap}{r^2 \sin\theta}
\PD{\phi}{a_r}
}
e^{-j k r} \\
&\approx
– k^2 \rcap \frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Again, a far field approximation has been used to kill all the $$1/r^2$$ terms.

The far field approximation of the electric field is now possible

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:160}
\begin{aligned}
\BE
&= – j \omega \BA – j \frac{1}{\omega \mu_0 \epsilon_0 } \spacegrad \lr{\spacegrad \cdot \BA } \\
&=
– j \omega
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \lr{
\rcap a_r\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\thetacap a_\theta\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\phicap a_\phi\lr{ \theta, \phi }
}
+ j \frac{1}{\omega \mu_0 \epsilon_0 }
k^2 \rcap \frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r} \\
&=
– j \omega
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \lr{
\rcap a_r\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\thetacap a_\theta\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\phicap a_\phi\lr{ \theta, \phi }
}
+ j \frac{c^2}{\omega }
\lr{\frac{\omega}{c}}^2 \rcap \frac{a_r}{r}
e^{-j k r}
\\
&=
– j \omega
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \lr{
\thetacap a_\theta\lr{ \theta, \phi }
+\phicap a_\phi\lr{ \theta, \phi }
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Observe the perfect, somewhat miraculous seeming, cancellation of all the radial components of the field. If $$\BA_{\textrm{T}}$$ is the non-radial projection of $$\BA$$, the electric far field is just

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:180}
\boxed{
\BE_{\textrm{ff}} = -j \omega \BA_{\textrm{T}}.
}
\end{equation}

## Magnetic Far field for a spherical potential.

Application of the same assumed representation for the magnetic field gives
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:220}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&=
&=
\frac{\rcap}{r \sin\theta} \partial_\theta \lr{A_\phi \sin\theta}
+ \frac{\thetacap}{r} \lr{ \inv{\sin\theta} \partial_\phi A_r – \partial_r \lr{r A_\phi}}
+ \frac{\phicap}{r} \lr{ \partial_r\lr{r A_\theta} – \partial_\theta A_r} \\
&=
\frac{\rcap}{r \sin\theta} \partial_\theta \lr{
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} a_\phi
\sin\theta}
+ \frac{\thetacap}{r} \lr{ \inv{\sin\theta} \partial_\phi \lr{
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} a_r
} – \partial_r \lr{r
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} a_\phi
}
}
+ \frac{\phicap}{r} \lr{ \partial_r\lr{r
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} a_\theta
} – \partial_\theta
\lr{
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} a_r
}
} \\
&=
\frac{\rcap}{r \sin\theta}
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r}
\partial_\theta \lr{
a_\phi
\sin\theta}
+ \frac{\thetacap}{r} \lr{ \inv{\sin\theta}
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r}
\partial_\phi
a_r
– \partial_r \lr{
e^{-j k r}
}
a_\phi
}
+ \frac{\phicap}{r} \lr{
\partial_r
\lr{
e^{-j k r}
}
a_\theta

\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r}
\partial_\theta
a_r
}
\approx
j k \lr{ \thetacap a_\phi

\phicap a_\theta
}
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \\
&=
-j k \rcap \cross \lr{
\thetacap a_\theta
+\phicap a_\phi
}
\frac{e^{-j k r}}{r} \\
&=
\inv{c} \BE_{\textrm{ff}}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The approximation above drops the $$1/r^2$$ terms. Since

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:240}
\inv{\mu_0 c} = \inv{\mu_0} \sqrt{\mu_0\epsilon_0} = \sqrt{\frac{\epsilon_0}{\mu_0}} = \inv{\eta},
\end{equation}

the magnetic far field can be expressed in terms of the electric far field as
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:260}
\boxed{
\BH = \inv{\eta} \rcap \cross \BE.
}
\end{equation}

## Plane wave relations between electric and magnetic fields

I recalled an identity of the form \ref{eqn:chapter4Notes:260} in , but didn’t think that it required a far field approximation.
The reason for this was because the Jackson identity assumed a plane wave representation of the field, something that the far field assumptions also locally require.

Assuming a plane wave representation for both fields

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:300}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}(\Bx, t) = \BE e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:320}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}(\Bx, t) = \BB e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}}
\end{equation}

The cross product relation between the fields follows from the Maxwell-Faraday law of induction

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:340}
0 = \spacegrad \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} + \PD{t}{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}},
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:360}
\begin{aligned}
0
&=
\Be_r \cross \BE \partial_r e^{j\lr{ \omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}}
+
j \omega \BB e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}} \\
&=
-j \Be_r k_r \cross \BE e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}}
+
j \omega \BB e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}} \\
&=
\lr{ – \Bk \cross \BE + \omega \BB } j
e^{j \lr{\omega t – \Bk \cdot \Bx}},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:380}
\begin{aligned}
\BH
&= \frac{ k}{k c \mu_0 } \kcap \cross \BE \\
&= \inv{ \eta } \kcap \cross \BE,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which also finds \ref{eqn:chapter4Notes:260}, but with much less work and less mess.

## Transverse only nature of the far-field fields

Also observe that its possible to tell that the far field fields have only transverse components using the same argument that they are locally plane waves at that distance. The plane waves must satisfy the zero divergence Maxwell’s equations

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:420}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:440}
\end{equation}

so by the same logic

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:480}
\Bk \cdot \BE = 0
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:500}
\Bk \cdot \BB = 0.
\end{equation}

In the far field the electric field must equal its transverse projection

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:520}
\BE = \textrm{Proj}_\T \lr{-j \omega \BA
– j \frac{1}{\omega \mu_0 \epsilon_0 } \spacegrad \lr{\spacegrad \cdot \BA } }.
\end{equation}

Since by \ref{eqn:chapter4Notes:140} the scalar potential term has only a radial component, that leaves

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:540}
\BE = -j \omega \textrm{Proj}_\T \BA,
\end{equation}

which provides \ref{eqn:chapter4Notes:180} with slightly less work.

## Vertical dipole reflection coefficient

In class a ground reflection scenario was covered for a horizontal dipole. Reading the text I was surprised to see what looked like the same sort of treatment section 4.7.2, but ending up with a quite different result. It turns out the difference is because the text was treating the vertical dipole configuration, whereas Prof. Eleftheriades was treating a horizontal dipole configuration, which have different reflection coefficients. These differing reflection coefficients are due to differences in the polarization of the field.

To understand these differences in reflection coefficients, consider first the field due to a vertical dipole as sketched in fig. 7, with a wave vector directed from the transmission point downwards in the z-y plane.

The wave vector has direction

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:560}
\kcap = \zcap e^{\zcap \xcap \theta} = \zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta.
\end{equation}

Suppose that the (magnetic) vector potential is that of an infinitesimal dipole

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:580}
\BA = \zcap \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} e^{-j k r} %= \frac{A_r}{4 \pi r} e^{-j k r}
\end{equation}

The electric field, in the far field, can be computed by computing the normal projection to the wave vector direction

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:600}
\begin{aligned}
\BE
&= -j \omega \lr{\BA \wedge \kcap} \cdot \kcap \\
&= -j \omega \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} \lr{\zcap \wedge \lr{\zcap \cos\theta
+ \ycap \sin\theta} } \lr{\zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta} \\
&= -j \omega \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} \lr{ \zcap \ycap \sin\theta }
\lr{\zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta} \\
&= -j \omega \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} \sin\theta \lr{-\ycap \cos\theta +
\zcap \sin\theta} \\
&= j \omega \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} \sin\theta \ycap e^{\zcap \ycap \theta}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This is directed in the z-y plane rotated an additional $$\pi/2$$ past $$\kcap$$. The magnetic field must then be directed into the page, along the x axis. This is sketched in fig. 8.

Referring to  (\eqntext 4.40) for the coefficient of reflection component

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:620}
R
=
\frac{
n_t \cos\theta_i – n_i \cos\theta_t
}
{
n_i \cos\theta_i + n_t \cos\theta_t
}
\end{equation}

This is the Fresnel equation for the case when
that corresponds to

$$\BE$$ lies in the plane of incidence, and the magnetic field is completely parallel to the plane of reflection). For the no transmission case, allowing $$v_t \rightarrow 0$$, the index of refraction is $$n_t = c/v_t \rightarrow \infty$$, and the reflection coefficient is $$1$$ as claimed in section 4.7.2 of . Because of the symmetry of this dipole configuration, the azimuthal angle that the wave vector is directed along does not matter.

## Horizontal dipole reflection coefficient

In the class notes, a horizontal dipole coming out of the page is indicated. With the page representing the z-y plane, this is a magnetic vector potential directed along the x-axis direction

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:640}
\BA = \xcap \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} e^{-j k r}.

\end{equation}

For a wave vector directed in the z-y plane as in \ref{eqn:chapter4Notes:560}, the electric far field is directed along

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:660}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \xcap \wedge \kcap } \cdot \kcap
&=
\xcap – \lr{ \xcap \cdot \kcap } \kcap \\
&=
\xcap – \lr{ \xcap \cdot \lr{
\zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta
} } \kcap \\
&= \xcap.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The electric far field lies completely in the plane of reflection. From  (\eqntext 4.34), the Fresnel reflection coefficients is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:680}
R =
\frac{
n_i \cos\theta_i – n_t \cos\theta_t
}
{
n_i \cos\theta_i + n_t \cos\theta_t
},
\end{equation}

which approaches $$-1$$ when $$n_t \rightarrow \infty$$. This is consistent with the image theorem summation that Prof. Eleftheriades used in class.

### Azimuthal angle dependency of the reflection coefficient

Now consider a horizontal dipole directed along the y-axis. For the same wave vector direction as avove, the electric far field is now directed along

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:700}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \ycap \wedge \kcap } \cdot \kcap
&=
\ycap – \lr{ \ycap \cdot \kcap } \kcap \\
&=
\ycap – \lr{ \ycap \cdot \lr{
\zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta
} } \kcap \\
&=
\ycap – \kcap \sin\theta \\
&=
\ycap – \sin\theta \lr{
\zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta
} \\
&=
\ycap \cos^2 \theta – \sin\theta \cos\theta \zcap \\
&= \cos\theta \lr{ \ycap \cos\theta – \sin\theta \zcap } \\
&= \cos\theta \ycap e^{ \zcap \ycap \theta }.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

That is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:720}
\BE =
-j \omega \frac{\mu_0 I_0 l}{4 \pi r} e^{-j k r}
\cos\theta \ycap e^{ \zcap \ycap \theta }.
\end{equation}

This far field electric field lies in the plane of incidence (a direction of $$\thetacap$$ rotated by $$\pi/2$$), not in the plane of reflection. The corresponding magnetic field should be directed along the plane of reflection, which is easily confirmed by calculation

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:740}
\begin{aligned}
\kcap \cross
\lr{ \ycap \cos\theta – \sin\theta \zcap }
&=
\lr{ \zcap \cos\theta + \ycap \sin\theta } \cross
\lr{ \ycap \cos\theta – \sin\theta \zcap } \\
&=
-\xcap \cos^2 \theta – \xcap \sin^2\theta \\
&= -\xcap.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The far field magnetic field is seen to be

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter4Notes:721}
\BH =
j \omega \frac{I_0 l}{4 \pi r} e^{-j k r}
\cos\theta \xcap,
\end{equation}

so a reflection coefficient of $$1$$ is required to calculate the power loss after a single ground reflection signal bounce for this relative orientation of antenna to the target.

I fail to see how the horizontal dipole treatment in section 4.7.5 can use a single reflection coefficient without taking into account the azimuthal dependency of that reflection coefficient.

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Antenna theory: analysis and design. John Wiley \& Sons, 3rd edition, 2005.

 E. Hecht. Optics. 1998.

 JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

 Wikipedia. Magnetic potential — Wikipedia, The Free Encyclopedia, 2015. URL https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Magnetic_potential&oldid=642387563. [Online; accessed 5-February-2015].

## Notes for ece1229 antenna theory I’ve now posted a first set of notes for the antenna theory course that I am taking this term at UofT.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides that match the textbook so closely, there is little value to me taking notes that just replicate the text. Instead, I am annotating my copy of textbook with little details instead. My usual notes collection for the class will contain musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book.)

• Reading notes for chapter 2 (Fundamental Parameters of Antennas) and chapter 3 (Radiation Integrals and Auxiliary Potential Functions) of the class text.
• Geometric Algebra musings.  How to do formulate Maxwell’s equations when magnetic sources are also included (those modeling magnetic dipoles).
• Some problems for chapter 2 content.

## Fundamental parameters of antennas

This is my first set of notes for the UofT course ECE1229, Advanced Antenna Theory, taught by Prof. Eleftheriades, covering ch. 2  content.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides that match the textbook so closely, there is little value to me taking notes that just replicate the text. Instead, I am annotating my copy of textbook with little details instead. My usual notes collection for the class will contain musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book.)

## Poynting vector

The Poynting vector was written in an unfamiliar form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:560}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{W}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}.
\end{equation}

I can roll with the use of a different symbol (i.e. not $$\BS$$) for the Poynting vector, but I’m used to seeing a $$\frac{c}{4\pi}$$ factor ( and ). I remembered something like that in SI units too, so was slightly confused not to see it here.

Per  that something is a $$\mu_0$$, as in

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:580}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{W}} = \inv{\mu_0} \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} \cross \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}.
\end{equation}

Note that the use of $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}$$ instead of $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}$$ is what wipes out the requirement for the $$\frac{1}{\mu_0}$$ term since $$\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}} = \boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}}/\mu_0$$, assuming linear media, and no magnetization.

It was mentioned that

U(\theta, \phi)
=
\frac{r^2}{2 \eta_0} \Abs{ \BE( r, \theta, \phi) }^2
=
\frac{1}{2 \eta_0} \lr{ \Abs{ E_\theta(\theta, \phi) }^2 + \Abs{ E_\phi(\theta, \phi) }^2},
\end{equation}

where the intrinsic impedance of free space is

\eta_0 = \sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\epsilon_0}} = 377 \Omega.
\end{equation}

(this is also eq. 2-19 in the text.)

To get an understanding where this comes from, consider the far field radial solutions to the electric and magnetic dipole problems, which have the respective forms (from ) of

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:740}
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} &= -\frac{\mu_0 p_0 \omega^2 }{4 \pi } \frac{\sin\theta}{r} \cos\lr{w t – k r} \thetacap \\
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} &= -\frac{\mu_0 p_0 \omega^2 }{4 \pi c} \frac{\sin\theta}{r} \cos\lr{w t – k r} \phicap \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:760}
\begin{aligned}
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}} &= \frac{\mu_0 m_0 \omega^2 }{4 \pi c} \frac{\sin\theta}{r} \cos\lr{w t – k r} \phicap \\
\boldsymbol{\mathcal{B}} &= -\frac{\mu_0 m_0 \omega^2 }{4 \pi c^2} \frac{\sin\theta}{r} \cos\lr{w t – k r} \thetacap \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

In neither case is there a component in the direction of propagation, and in both cases (using $$\mu_0 \epsilon_0 = 1/c^2$$)

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:780}
\Abs{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{H}}}
= \frac{\Abs{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}}}{\mu_0 c}
= \Abs{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}} \sqrt{\frac{\epsilon_0}{\mu_0}}
= \inv{\eta_0}\Abs{\boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}} .
\end{equation}

A superposition of the phasors for such dipole fields, in the far field, will have the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:800}
\begin{aligned}
\BE &= \inv{r} \lr{ E_\theta(\theta, \phi) \thetacap + E_\phi(\theta, \phi) \phicap } \\
\BB &= \inv{r c} \lr{ E_\theta(\theta, \phi) \thetacap – E_\phi(\theta, \phi) \phicap },
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

with a corresponding time averaged Poynting vector

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:820}
\begin{aligned}
\BW_{\textrm{av}}
&= \inv{2 \mu_0} \BE \cross \BB^\conj \\
&=
\inv{2 \mu_0 c r^2}
\lr{ E_\theta \thetacap + E_\phi \phicap } \cross
\lr{ E_\theta^\conj \thetacap – E_\phi^\conj \phicap } \\
&=
\frac{\thetacap \cross \phicap}{2 \mu_0 c r^2}
\lr{ \Abs{E_\theta}^2 + \Abs{E_\phi}^2 } \\
&=
\frac{\rcap}{2 \eta_0 r^2}
\lr{ \Abs{E_\theta}^2 + \Abs{E_\phi}^2 },
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

verifying \ref{eqn:advancedantennaL1:20} for a superposition of electric and magnetic dipole fields. This can likely be shown for more general fields too.

## Field plots

We can plot the fields, or intensity (or log plots in dB of these).
It is pointed out in  that when there is $$r$$ dependence these plots are done by considering the values of at fixed $$r$$.

The field plots are conceptually the simplest, since that vector parameterizes
a surface. Any such radial field with magnitude $$f(r, \theta, \phi)$$ can
be plotted in Mathematica in the $$\phi = 0$$ plane at $$r = r_0$$, or in
3D (respectively, but also at $$r = r_0$$) with code like that of the
following listing Intensity plots can use the same code, with the only difference being the interpretation. The surface doesn’t represent the value of a vector valued radial function, but is the magnitude of a scalar valued function evaluated at $$f( r_0, \theta, \phi)$$.

The surfaces for $$U = \sin\theta, \sin^2\theta$$ in the plane are parametrically plotted in fig. 2, and for cosines in fig. 1 to compare with textbook figures.

Visualizations of $$U = \sin^2 \theta$$ and $$U = \cos^2 \theta$$ can be found in fig. 3 and fig. 4 respectively. Even for such simple functions these look pretty cool.

## dB vs dBi

Note that dBi is used to indicate that the gain is with respect to an “isotropic” radiator.
This is detailed more in .

## Trig integrals

Tables 1.1 and 1.2 produced with tableOfTrigIntegrals.nb have some of the sine and cosine integrals that are pervasive in this chapter.  ## Polarization vectors

The text introduces polarization vectors $$\rhocap$$ , but doesn’t spell out their form. Consider a plane wave field of the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:840}
\BE
=
E_x e^{j \phi_x} e^{j \lr{ \omega t – k z }} \xcap
+
E_y e^{j \phi_y} e^{j \lr{ \omega t – k z }} \ycap.
\end{equation}

The $$x, y$$ plane directionality of this phasor can be written

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:860}
\Brho =
E_x e^{j \phi_x} \xcap
+
E_y e^{j \phi_y} \ycap,
\end{equation}

so that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:880}
\BE = \Brho e^{j \lr{ \omega t – k z }}.
\end{equation}

Separating this direction and magnitude into factors

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:900}
\Brho = \Abs{\BE} \rhocap,
\end{equation}

allows the phasor to be expressed as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:920}
\BE = \rhocap \Abs{\BE} e^{j \lr{ \omega t – k z }}.
\end{equation}

As an example, suppose that $$E_x = E_y$$, and set $$\phi_x = 0$$. Then

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:940}
\rhocap = \xcap + \ycap e^{j \phi_y}.
\end{equation}

## Phasor power

In section 2.13 the phasor power is written as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:620}
I^2 R/2,
\end{equation}

where $$I, R$$ are the magnitudes of phasors in the circuit.

I vaguely recall this relation, but had to refer back to  for the details.
This relation expresses average power over a period associated with the frequency of the phasor

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:640}
\begin{aligned}
P
&= \inv{T} \int_{t_0}^{t_0 + T} p(t) dt \\
&= \inv{T} \int_{t_0}^{t_0 + T} \Abs{\BV} \cos\lr{ \omega t + \phi_V }
\Abs{\BI} \cos\lr{ \omega t + \phi_I} dt \\
&= \inv{T} \int_{t_0}^{t_0 + T} \Abs{\BV} \Abs{\BI}
\lr{
\cos\lr{ \phi_V – \phi_I } + \cos\lr{ 2 \omega t + \phi_V + \phi_I}
}
dt \\
&= \inv{2} \Abs{\BV} \Abs{\BI} \cos\lr{ \phi_V – \phi_I }.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Introducing the impedance for this circuit element

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:660}
\BZ = \frac{ \Abs{\BV} e^{j\phi_V} }{ \Abs{\BI} e^{j\phi_I} } = \frac{\Abs{\BV}}{\Abs{\BI}} e^{j\lr{\phi_V – \phi_I}},
\end{equation}

this average power can be written in phasor form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:680}
\BP = \inv{2} \Abs{\BI}^2 \BZ,
\end{equation}

with
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:700}
P = \textrm{Re} \BP.
\end{equation}

Observe that we have to be careful to use the absolute value of the current phasor $$\BI$$, since $$\BI^2$$ differs in phase from $$\Abs{\BI}^2$$. This explains the conjugation in the  definition of complex power, which had the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:720}
\BS = \BV_{\textrm{rms}} \BI^\conj_{\textrm{rms}}.
\end{equation}

### Flat plate.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:960}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}} = \frac{4 \pi \lr{L W}^2}{\lambda^2}
\end{equation}

### Sphere.

In the optical limit the radar cross section for a sphere

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:980}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}} = \pi r^2
\end{equation}

Note that this is smaller than the physical area $$4 \pi r^2$$.

### Cylinder.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1000}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}} = \frac{ 2 \pi r h^2}{\lambda}
\end{equation}

### Tridedral corner reflector

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1020}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}} = \frac{ 4 \pi L^4}{3 \lambda^2}
\end{equation}

## Scattering from a sphere vs frequency

Frequency dependence of spherical scattering is sketched in fig. 10.

• Low frequency (or small particles): Rayleigh\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1040}
\sigma = \lr{\pi r^2} 7.11 \lr{\kappa r}^4, \qquad \kappa = 2 \pi/\lambda.
\end{equation}
• Mie scattering (resonance),\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1060}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}}(A) = 4 \pi r^2
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1080}
\sigma_{\textrm{max}}(B) = 0.26 \pi r^2.
\end{equation}
• optical limit ( $$r \gg \lambda$$ )\begin{equation}\label{eqn:chapter2Notes:1100}
\sigma = \pi r^2.
\end{equation} fig 10. Scattering from a sphere vs frequency (from Prof. Eleftheriades’ class notes).

FIXME: Do I have a derivation of this in my optics notes?

## Notation

• Time average.
and the text  use square brackets $$[\cdots]$$ for time averages, not $$<\cdots>$$. Was that an engineering convention?
writes $$\Omega$$ as a circle floating above a face up square bracket, as in fig. 1, and $$\sigma$$ like a number 6, as in fig. 1.
• Bold vectors are usually phasors, with (bold) calligraphic script used for the time domain fields. Example: $$\BE(x,y,z,t) = \ecap E(x,y) e^{j \lr{\omega t – k z}}, \boldsymbol{\mathcal{E}}(x, y, z, t) = \textrm{Re} \BE$$.

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Antenna theory: analysis and design. John Wiley \& Sons, 3rd edition, 2005.

 David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

 J.D. Irwin. Basic Engineering Circuit Analysis. MacMillian, 1993.

 JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

 L.D. Landau and E.M. Lifshitz. The classical theory of fields. Butterworth-Heinemann, 1980. ISBN 0750627689.