wave equation

A trilogy in four+ parts: The 2D Laplacian Green’s function.

September 22, 2025 math and physics play , , , , , , ,

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I was questioning the correctness of the 1D and 2D Helmholtz Green’s functions derived above, since they are both seemingly malformed for \( k \rightarrow 0 \).

Let’s try to carefully expand the 2D Green’s function in the neighbourhood of \( k = 0 \) to validate that result, and as a side effect, obtain the Green’s function for the 2D Laplacian.

In [1], section 9.1.7, 9.1.8, we have for \( z \rightarrow 0 \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:980}
\begin{aligned}
J_\nu(z) &\sim \lr{\frac{z}{2}}^\nu/\Gamma(\nu+1) \\
Y_0(z) &\sim \frac{2}{\pi} \ln z,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so for \( k \ll r \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1000}
H_0^{(1)}(k r) \sim 1 + \frac{2j}{\pi} \ln\lr{k r},
\end{equation}
and
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1020}
\begin{aligned}
G(\Br)
&\sim -\frac{j}{4} \lr{ 1 + \frac{j}{2 \pi} \ln\lr{k r} } \\
&= -\frac{j}{4} + \frac{1}{2 \pi} \ln k + \frac{1}{2 \pi} \ln r.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
Here is where we have to get sneaky. Since we seek a Green’s function for the Laplacian operator, we are free to add any solution \( f(x,y) \) that satisfies \( \spacegrad^2 f = 0 \). Constants are clearly in that homogeneous solution space, so we may adjust this expansion of the Green’s function, throwing away the leading constant imaginary term, and treating \( k \) as a small constant, the \( \ln k \) term. That leaves us with
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1040}\boxed{
G(\Bx, \Bx’) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}.
}
\end{equation}

Verifying the Laplacian Green’s function.

Let’s try to verify that this Green’s function is correct, since we’ve had lots of opportunities to screw up signs. We want to evaluate the Laplacian of the convolution and if all goes well, it should be \( V(\Bx) \). That is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1060}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad^2 \int G(\Bx, \Bx’) V(\Bx’) d^2 \Bx’
&= \inv{2 \pi} \int \spacegrad^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} V(\Bx’) d^2 \Bx’ \\
&= \inv{2 \pi}
\int V(\Bx’) \lr{\spacegrad’}^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} d^2 \Bx’ \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
We can verify that \( \lr{\spacegrad’}^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} \) is zero whenever \( \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} \ne 0 \). A nice way of doing that is in polar coordinates. Write
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1160}
\begin{aligned}
\Br &= \Bx’ – \Bx \\
r &= \Abs{r} \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
and recall that
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1180}
\spacegrad^2 f = \inv{r} \PD{r}{} \lr{ r \PD{r}{f} } + \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial \theta^2},
\end{equation}
but \( r \PD{r}{\ln r} = 1 \), and \( \ln r \) has no angular dependence. That means that
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1200}
\spacegrad^2 \int G(\Bx, \Bx’) V(\Bx’) d^2 \Bx’
= \inv{2 \pi} \int_{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} < \epsilon} V(\Bx’) \lr{\spacegrad’}^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} d^2 \Bx’,
\end{equation}
where we let \( \epsilon \rightarrow 0 \). Such a region is illustrated in fig. 7.

fig. 7. Neighborhood around x

 

We can now apply Green’s theorem, which for 2D is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1080}
\int_A \lr{ u \spacegrad^2 v – v \spacegrad^2 u } dA = \int_{\partial A} \lr{ u \spacegrad v – v \spacegrad u } \cdot \mathbf{\hat{n}} \, dS,
\end{equation}
or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1090}
\int_A v \spacegrad^2 u \, dA = \int_A u \spacegrad^2 v \, dA -\int_{\partial A} \lr{ u \spacegrad v – v \spacegrad u } \cdot \mathbf{\hat{n}} \, dS,
\end{equation}
With
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1161}
\begin{aligned}
\mathbf{\hat{r}} &= \Br/r = \mathbf{\hat{n}} \\
u &= \ln r \\
v &= V(\Bx’) \\
dA &= r dr d\theta \\
dS &= r d\theta,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
we have
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1100}
\begin{aligned}
\int V(\Bx’) \lr{ \lr{\spacegrad’}^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} } d^2 \Bx’
&=
\int_{r=0}^\epsilon r dr d\theta \ln r \lr{ \spacegrad’}^2 V(\Bx’) \\
&\quad-
\int_{\theta = 0}^{2 \pi}
\epsilon d\theta
\evalbar{
\lr{
\ln \epsilon \spacegrad’ V(\Bx’) – V(\Bx’) \spacegrad’ \ln r
}
\cdot \mathbf{\hat{r}}
}
{\,r = \epsilon}
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
We have \( r \ln r \), or \( \epsilon \ln \epsilon \) dependence in two of the integrand terms, and with \( r < \epsilon \), and \( \epsilon \ln \epsilon \rightarrow 0 \), in the limit, we are left with
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1120}
\begin{aligned}
\int V(\Bx’) \lr{\spacegrad’}^2 \ln \Abs{\Bx – \Bx’} d^2 \Bx’
&=
\int_{\theta = 0}^{2 \pi} \epsilon \evalbar{ d\theta V(\Bx’) \lr{ \spacegrad’ \ln r } \cdot \mathbf{\hat{r}} }{\,r = \epsilon} \\
&=
\int_{\theta = 0}^{2 \pi}
\epsilon
\evalbar{
d\theta V(\Bx’) \lr{ \lr{ \mathbf{\hat{r}} \partial_r + \frac{\thetacap}{r^2} \partial_\theta } \ln r } \cdot \mathbf{\hat{r}}
}{\,r = \epsilon}
\\
&=
\int_{\theta = 0}^{2 \pi}
\epsilon
\evalbar{
d\theta V(\Bx’) \frac{\mathbf{\hat{r}}}{r} \cdot \mathbf{\hat{r}}
}{\,r = \epsilon}
\\
&=
\int_{\theta = 0}^{2 \pi} d\theta V(\Bx + \epsilon \mathbf{\hat{r}}).
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

In the limit we are left with just \( 2 \pi V(\Bx) \), so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:1140}
\spacegrad^2 \int G(\Bx, \Bx’) V(\Bx’) d^2 \Bx’ = V(\Bx),
\end{equation}
as desired.

References

[1] M. Abramowitz and I.A. Stegun. Handbook of mathematical functions with formulas, graphs, and mathematical tables, volume 55. Dover publications, 1964.

Part 2. 3D Green’s function for the Helmholtz (wave equation) operator

September 20, 2025 math and physics play , , , , , , , ,

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This is a continuation of yesterday’s post on wave function Green’s functions. We derived the 1D Green’s function, now it’s time for the 3D.

Next up after this will be the 2D Green’s function, which looks harder to evaluate than the 1D or 3D versions.

3D Green’s function.

The 3D Green’s function that we wish to try to evaluate is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:540}
G(\Br) = -\inv{(2 \pi)^3} \int \frac{e^{j \Bp \cdot \Br}}{\Bp^2 – k^2} d^3 p.
\end{equation}
We will have to displace the pole again, but we will get to that in a bit. First let’s make a spherical change of variables to evaluate the integral, with
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:560}
\begin{aligned}
\Bp &= p \lr{ \sin\alpha \cos\phi, \sin\alpha \sin\phi, \cos\alpha } \\
\Br &= \Abs{\Br} \Be_3.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
This gives
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:580}
G(\Br)
= -\inv{(2 \pi)^3} \int_0^\infty p^2 dp \int_0^\pi \sin\alpha d\alpha \int_0^{2 \pi} d\phi \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br} \cos\alpha}}{p^2 – k^2}.
\end{equation}
Let \( t = \cos\alpha \), to find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:600}
\begin{aligned}
G(\Br)
&= -\inv{(2 \pi)^2} \int_0^\infty p^2 dp \int_1^{-1} (-dt) \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br} t}}{p^2 – k^2} \\
&= \inv{(2 \pi)^2} \int_0^\infty p^2 dp \evalrange{\frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br} t}}{\lr{p^2 – k^2} j p \Abs{\Br}}}{1}{-1} \\
&= \inv{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \int_0^\infty p dp \frac{e^{-j p \Abs{\Br}} – e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{p^2 – k^2} \\
&= -\inv{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty p dp \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{p^2 – k^2} \\
&\sim -\inv{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty p dp \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{p^2 – \lr{k + j \epsilon}^2}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
In the last step, we’ve displaced the pole so that we can evaluate it using an infinite upper half plane semicircular contour, as illustrated in fig 3.

fig 3. Contours for 3D Green’s function evaluation

Which pole we choose depends on the sign we pick for the “small” pole displacement \( \epsilon \). For the \( \epsilon > 0 \) case, we find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:620}
\begin{aligned}
G(\Br)
&= -\inv{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty p dp \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{\lr{p – (k + j \epsilon)}\lr{p – (-k – j \epsilon)}} \\
&= -\frac{2 \pi j}{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \evalbar{\frac{p e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{p + k + j \epsilon}}{p = k + j \epsilon} \\
&= -\frac{1}{2 \pi \Abs{\Br}} (k + j \epsilon) \frac{e^{j (k + j \epsilon) \Abs{\Br}} }{2 (k + j \epsilon)} \\
&= -\frac{1}{4 \pi \Abs{\Br}} e^{j k \Abs{\Br}} e^{-\epsilon \Abs{\Br}} \\
&\rightarrow -\frac{e^{j k \Abs{\Br}} }{4 \pi \Abs{\Br}}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
whereas for \( \epsilon < 0 \), we have
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:640}
\begin{aligned}
G(\Br)
&= -\inv{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty p dp \frac{e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{\lr{p – (k + j \epsilon)}\lr{p – (-k – j \epsilon)}} \\
&= -\frac{2 \pi j}{j (2 \pi)^2 \Abs{\Br}} \evalbar{\frac{p e^{j p \Abs{\Br}} }{p – k – j \epsilon}}{p = -k – j \epsilon} \\
&= -\frac{1}{2 \pi \Abs{\Br}} (-k – j \epsilon) \frac{e^{j (-k – j \epsilon) \Abs{\Br}} }{2 (-k – j \epsilon)} \\
&= -\frac{1}{4 \pi \Abs{\Br}} e^{-j k \Abs{\Br}} e^{\epsilon \Abs{\Br}} \\
&\rightarrow -\frac{e^{-j k \Abs{\Br}} }{4 \pi \Abs{\Br}}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The Green’s function has the structure of either an outgoing or incoming spherical wave, with inverse radial amplitude:
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:660}
\boxed{
G(\Bx, \Bx’) = -\frac{e^{\pm j k \Abs{\Br}} }{4 \pi \Abs{\Br}}.
}
\end{equation}

Part 1. Green’s functions for the Helmholtz (wave equation) operator in various dimensions.

September 18, 2025 math and physics play , , , , , , , , ,

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My favorite book on mathematical physics derives the Green’s function for the 3D Helmholtz (wave equation) operator. I tried to derive the 2D Green’s function the same way and had trouble. In this series of blog posts, I’ll attempt that again, but will start with the easier 1D and 3D cases. Presuming that I don’t hit any conceptual troubles trying both of those from first principles, I’ll attempt the seemingly trickier 2D case again.

Motivation and background.

We seek a solution to non-homogeneous Helmholtz equation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:20}
0 = \lr{ \spacegrad^2 + k^2 } U(\Bx) – V(\Bx).
\end{equation}

This is a problem that can be solved using Fourier transform techniques. Following [1], let’s write our transform pair in the symmetrical form:
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:40}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bx) &= \lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N \int \hat{F}(\Bp) e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp \\
\hat{F}(\Bp) &= \lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N \int F(\Bx) e^{-j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bx.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Expressing \(U(\Bx), V(\Bx)\), in terms of their Fourier transforms, \ref{eqn:helmholtzGreens:20} becomes
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:80}
\begin{aligned}
0 &=
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 + k^2 }
\lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N
\int \hat{U}(\Bp) e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp

\lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N
\int \hat{V}(\Bp) e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp \\
&=
\lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N
\int \lr{ \hat{U}(\Bp) \lr{ -\Bp^2 + k^2 } – \hat{V}(\Bp) } e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which requires
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:100}
\hat{U}(\Bp) = \frac{\hat{V}(\Bp) }{k^2 – \Bp^2}.
\end{equation}

We can now inverse transform to find \( U(\Bx) \), which gives
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:120}
\begin{aligned}
U(\Bx) &=
\lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N \int \hat{U}(\Bp) e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp \\
&=
\lr{\inv{\sqrt{2 \pi}}}^N \int
\frac{\hat{V}(\Bp) }{k^2 – \Bp^2} e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp \\
&=
\lr{\inv{2 \pi}}^N \int
\inv{k^2 – \Bp^2} e^{j \Bp \cdot \Bx} d\Bp \int V(\Bx’) e^{-j \Bp \cdot \Bx’} d\Bx’ \\
&=
\int V(\Bx’) d\Bx’
\lr{\inv{2 \pi}}^N
\int
\inv{k^2 – \Bp^2} e^{j \Bp \cdot \lr{\Bx – \Bx’}}
d\Bp
.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The general solution is given by
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:140}
U(\Bx) = \int G(\Bx, \Bx’) V(\Bx’) d\Bx’,
\end{equation}
where \( G(\Bx, \Bx’) \) is called the Green’s function, and has the form
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:160}
G(\Bx, \Bx’) = \lr{\inv{2 \pi}}^N
\int
\inv{k^2 – \Bp^2} e^{j \Bp \cdot \lr{\Bx – \Bx’}}
d\Bp.
\end{equation}

Equivalently, if we presume that a solution of the form \ref{eqn:helmholtzGreens:140} can be found, and operate on that with the Helmholtz operator \( \spacegrad^2 + k^2 \), we find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:60}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 + k^2 } U(\Bx) = \int \lr{ \spacegrad^2 + k^2 } G(\Bx, \Bx’) V(\Bx’) d\Bx’ = V(\Bx),
\end{equation}
which requires that our Green’s function \( G(\Bx, \Bx’) \) has the functional form
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:180}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 + k^2 } G(\Bx, \Bx’) = \delta(\Bx – \Bx’).
\end{equation}

Evaluating the Green’s function in 1D.

For the one dimensional case, we want to evaluate
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:200}
G(u) = -\inv{2 \pi} \int \inv{p^2 – k^2} e^{j p u} dp,
\end{equation}
an integral which is unfortunately non-convergent. Since we are dealing with delta functions, it is not surprising that we have convergence problems. The technique used in the book is to displace the pole slightly by a small imaginary amount, and then take the limit.

That is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:220}
G(u) = \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} G_\epsilon(u),
\end{equation}
where
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:240}
\begin{aligned}
G_\epsilon(u)
&= -\inv{2 \pi} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \inv{p^2 – \lr{k + j \epsilon}^2} e^{j p u} dp \\
&= -\inv{2 \pi} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{j p u}}{\lr{ p – k -j \epsilon}\lr{p + k + j \epsilon}} dp.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
For \( u > 0 \) we can use an upper half plane infinite semicircular contour integral, as illustrated in fig. 1, where we
let \( R \rightarrow \infty \).

fig.1 Contour for u > 0.

The residue calculation for that contour gives
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:260}
\begin{aligned}
G_\epsilon(u)
&= -\frac{2 \pi j}{2 \pi} \evalbar{\frac{e^{j p u}}{p + k + j \epsilon} }{p = k + j \epsilon} \\
&= -j \frac{e^{j \lr{k + j \epsilon} u}}{2\lr{k + j \epsilon}} \\
&= -j \frac{e^{j k u} e^{-\epsilon u}}{2\lr{k + j \epsilon}} \\
&\rightarrow -\frac{j}{2k} e^{j k u}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For \( u < 0 \) we can use a lower half plane infinite semicircular contour, as illustrated in fig. 2.

fig 2. Contour for u < 0.

For this contour, we find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:280}
\begin{aligned}
G_\epsilon(u)
&= -\frac{2 \pi j}{2 \pi} \evalbar{\frac{e^{j p u}}{p – k – j \epsilon} }{p = -k – j \epsilon} \\
&= j \frac{e^{-j \lr{k + j \epsilon} u}}{2\lr{k + j \epsilon}} \\
&= j \frac{e^{-j k u} e^{\epsilon u}}{2\lr{k + j \epsilon}} \\
&\rightarrow \frac{j}{2k} e^{-j k u} \\
&= \frac{j}{2k} e^{j k \Abs{u}}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
We find that our Green’s function is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:300}
\boxed{
G(u) = \frac{-j \mathrm{sgn}(u)}{2k} e^{j k \Abs{u}}.
}
\end{equation}

Let’s plug this into the convolution integral to see the form of the general solution
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:320}
U(x) = -\frac{j}{2k} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \mathrm{sgn}(x – x’) e^{j k \Abs{x – x’}} V(x’) dx’.
\end{equation}
We want to break this integral into two regions
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:340}
\int_{-\infty}^\infty = \int_{-\infty}^x + \int_x^\infty,
\end{equation}
separating the integral into regions where \( x > x’ \) and \( x < x’ \) respectively. That is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:360}
U(x) =
-\frac{j}{2k} \int_{-\infty}^x e^{j k \lr{x – x’}} V(x’) dx’
+\frac{j}{2k} \int_x^\infty e^{-j k \lr{x – x’}} V(x’) dx’.
\end{equation}
This isn’t the most general solution, as we can also add any solution to the homogeneous Helmholtz equation. That is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:400}
U(x) = A e^{j k x} + B e^{-j k x} – \frac{j}{2k} \int_{-\infty}^x e^{j k \lr{x – x’}} V(x’) dx’
+\frac{j}{2k} \int_x^\infty e^{-j k \lr{x – x’}} V(x’) dx’.
\end{equation}

The real and imaginary parts of this equation must also be independent solutions. For example, taking the real parts, we find the following general solution
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:380}
U(x) =
A’ \cos\lr{ k x } +
B’ \sin\lr{ k x }
+\inv{2} \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’
-\inv{2} \int_x^\infty \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’.
\end{equation}

A strictly causal solution.

It is interesting that the specific solution above has equal causal and acausal contributions. Such a solution (outside of QFT) is generally undesirable. We can construct a specific solution that is either causal or acausal by picking just one of the integrals above, instead of averaging. For example, let
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:440}
f(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’.
\end{equation}
We can verify that this is a specific solution to our equation using the identity
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:460}
\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^x g(x, x’) dx’
=
\evalrange{g(x, x’) }{a}{x} + \int_a^x \frac{\partial g(x,x’)}{dx} dx’.
\end{equation}
Taking the first derivative of \( f(x) \), we find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:480}
\begin{aligned}
\frac{df}{dx}
&= \evalrange{ \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) }{-\infty}{x} + k \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\cos\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’ \\
&= \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x + \infty}}}{k} V(-\infty) + k \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\cos\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’ \\
&= k \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\cos\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
where we have assumed that our forcing function \( V(x) \) is zero at \( -\infty \). Taking the second derivative, we have
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:500}
\begin{aligned}
\frac{d^2f}{dx^2}
&=
\evalrange{ k \frac{\cos\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) }{-\infty}{x} – k^2 \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’ \\
&= V(x) – k^2 f(x),
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:520}
\frac{d^2}{dx^2} f(x) + k^2 f(x) = V(x).
\end{equation}
This verifies that \ref{eqn:helmholtzGreens:440} is also a specific solution to the wave equation, as expected and desired.

It appears that the general solution is likely of the following form
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:380b}
U(x) =
A’ \cos\lr{ k x } +
B’ \sin\lr{ k x }
+\alpha \int_{-\infty}^x \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’
-(1-\alpha)\int_x^\infty \frac{\sin\lr{k \lr{x – x’}}}{k} V(x’) dx’,
\end{equation}
with \( \alpha \in [0,1] \).

It’s pretty cool that we can completely solve the 1D forced wave equation, for any forcing function, from first principles. Yes, I took liberties that would make a mathematician cringe, but we are telling a story, and leaving the footnotes to somebody else.

More specific boundary constraints.

Just as we have the freedom to add any homogeneous solution to our specific convolution based solution, we may do so for the Green’s function itself. Our process above, implicitly assumes that we are interested in infinite boundary value constraints. Should we wish to impose different boundary constraints, we can form
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:helmholtzGreens:420}
G(u) = A e^{ j k u} + B e^{-j k u} – \frac{j \mathrm{sgn}(u)}{2k} e^{j k \Abs{u}},
\end{equation}
but must then use the boundary value constraints to determine the desired form of the Green’s function, using the two degrees of freedom to do so. That’s also an interesting topic, and would be good to also visit in a followup post.

References

[1] F.W. Byron and R.W. Fuller. Mathematics of Classical and Quantum Physics. Dover Publications, 1992.

Solving Maxwell’s equation in freespace: Multivector plane wave representation

March 14, 2018 math and physics play , , , , , , , , , , , ,

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The geometric algebra form of Maxwell’s equations in free space (or source free isotopic media with group velocity \( c \)) is the multivector equation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:20}
\lr{ \spacegrad + \inv{c}\PD{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}
Here \( F = \BE + I c \BB \) is a multivector with grades 1 and 2 (vector and bivector components). The velocity \( c \) is called the group velocity since \( F \), or its components \( \BE, \BH \) satisfy the wave equation, which can be seen by pre-multiplying with \( \spacegrad – (1/c)\PDi{t}{} \) to find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:n}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 – \inv{c^2}\PDSq{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}

Let’s look at the frequency domain solution of this equation with a presumed phasor representation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:40}
F(\Bx, t) = \textrm{Re} \lr{ F(\Bk) e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t} },
\end{equation}
where \( j \) is a scalar imaginary, not necessarily with any geometric interpretation.

Maxwell’s equation reduces to just
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:60}
0
=
-j \lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} } F(\Bk).
\end{equation}

If \( F(\Bk) \) has a left multivector factor
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:80}
F(\Bk) =
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F},
\end{equation}
where \( \tilde{F} \) is a multivector to be determined, then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:100}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F} \\
&=
\lr{ \Bk^2 – \lr{\frac{\omega}{c}}^2 } \tilde{F},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which is zero if \( \Norm{\Bk} = \ifrac{\omega}{c} \).

Let \( \kcap = \ifrac{\Bk}{\Norm{\Bk}} \), and \( \Norm{\Bk} \tilde{F} = F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 \), where \( F_0, F_1, F_2, \) and \( F_3 \) are respectively have grades 0,1,2,3. Then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:120}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&= \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 } \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap F_1 + \kcap F_2 + \kcap F_3 \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1 + \kcap \cdot F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3
+
\kcap \wedge F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_2 \\
&=
\lr{
F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_1 + \kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}
+
\lr{
F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
Since the field \( F \) has only vector and bivector grades, the grades zero and three components of the expansion above must be zero, or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:140}
\begin{aligned}
F_0 &= – \kcap \cdot F_1 \\
F_3 &= – \kcap \wedge F_2,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:160}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap \cdot F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap \wedge F_2
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
The multivector \( 1 + \kcap \) has the projective property of gobbling any leading factors of \( \kcap \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:180}
\begin{aligned}
(1 + \kcap)\kcap
&= \kcap + 1 \\
&= 1 + \kcap,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so for \( F_i \in F_1, F_2 \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:200}
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – \kcap F_i )
=
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – F_i )
= 0,
\end{equation}
leaving
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:220}
F(\Bk)
=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
\kcap \cdot F_2 +
\kcap \wedge F_1
}.
\end{equation}

For \( \kcap \cdot F_2 \) to be non-zero \( F_2 \) must be a bivector that lies in a plane containing \( \kcap \), and \( \kcap \cdot F_2 \) is a vector in that plane that is perpendicular to \( \kcap \). On the other hand \( \kcap \wedge F_1 \) is non-zero only if \( F_1 \) has a non-zero component that does not lie in along the \( \kcap \) direction, but \( \kcap \wedge F_1 \), like \( F_2 \) describes a plane that containing \( \kcap \). This means that having both bivector and vector free variables \( F_2 \) and \( F_1 \) provide more degrees of freedom than required. For example, if \( \BE \) is any vector, and \( F_2 = \kcap \wedge \BE \), then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:240}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot F_2
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\lr{
\BE

\kcap \lr{ \kcap \cdot \BE }
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \wedge \BE,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which has the form \( \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ \kcap \wedge F_1 } \), so the solution of the free space Maxwell’s equation can be written
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:260}
\boxed{
F(\Bx, t)
=
\textrm{Re} \lr{
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\BE\,
e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t}
}
,
}
\end{equation}
where \( \BE \) is any vector for which \( \BE \cdot \Bk = 0 \).