magnetic field

Solving Maxwell’s equation in freespace: Multivector plane wave representation

March 14, 2018 math and physics play , , , , , , , , , , , ,

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The geometric algebra form of Maxwell’s equations in free space (or source free isotopic media with group velocity \( c \)) is the multivector equation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:20}
\lr{ \spacegrad + \inv{c}\PD{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}
Here \( F = \BE + I c \BB \) is a multivector with grades 1 and 2 (vector and bivector components). The velocity \( c \) is called the group velocity since \( F \), or its components \( \BE, \BH \) satisfy the wave equation, which can be seen by pre-multiplying with \( \spacegrad – (1/c)\PDi{t}{} \) to find
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:n}
\lr{ \spacegrad^2 – \inv{c^2}\PDSq{t}{} } F(\Bx, t) = 0.
\end{equation}

Let’s look at the frequency domain solution of this equation with a presumed phasor representation
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:40}
F(\Bx, t) = \textrm{Re} \lr{ F(\Bk) e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t} },
\end{equation}
where \( j \) is a scalar imaginary, not necessarily with any geometric interpretation.

Maxwell’s equation reduces to just
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:60}
0
=
-j \lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} } F(\Bk).
\end{equation}

If \( F(\Bk) \) has a left multivector factor
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:80}
F(\Bk) =
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F},
\end{equation}
where \( \tilde{F} \) is a multivector to be determined, then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:100}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ \Bk – \frac{\omega}{c} }
\lr{ \Bk + \frac{\omega}{c} } \tilde{F} \\
&=
\lr{ \Bk^2 – \lr{\frac{\omega}{c}}^2 } \tilde{F},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which is zero if \( \Norm{\Bk} = \ifrac{\omega}{c} \).

Let \( \kcap = \ifrac{\Bk}{\Norm{\Bk}} \), and \( \Norm{\Bk} \tilde{F} = F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 \), where \( F_0, F_1, F_2, \) and \( F_3 \) are respectively have grades 0,1,2,3. Then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:120}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&= \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3 } \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap F_1 + \kcap F_2 + \kcap F_3 \\
&=
F_0 + F_1 + F_2 + F_3
+
\kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1 + \kcap \cdot F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3
+
\kcap \wedge F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_2 \\
&=
\lr{
F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_1 + \kcap F_0 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}
+
\lr{
F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_1
}
+
\lr{
F_3 + \kcap \wedge F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
Since the field \( F \) has only vector and bivector grades, the grades zero and three components of the expansion above must be zero, or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:140}
\begin{aligned}
F_0 &= – \kcap \cdot F_1 \\
F_3 &= – \kcap \wedge F_2,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:160}
\begin{aligned}
F(\Bk)
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap \cdot F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap \wedge F_2
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
F_1 – \kcap F_1 + \kcap \wedge F_1 +
F_2 – \kcap F_2 + \kcap \cdot F_2
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
The multivector \( 1 + \kcap \) has the projective property of gobbling any leading factors of \( \kcap \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:180}
\begin{aligned}
(1 + \kcap)\kcap
&= \kcap + 1 \\
&= 1 + \kcap,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
so for \( F_i \in F_1, F_2 \)
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:200}
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – \kcap F_i )
=
(1 + \kcap) ( F_i – F_i )
= 0,
\end{equation}
leaving
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:220}
F(\Bk)
=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{
\kcap \cdot F_2 +
\kcap \wedge F_1
}.
\end{equation}

For \( \kcap \cdot F_2 \) to be non-zero \( F_2 \) must be a bivector that lies in a plane containing \( \kcap \), and \( \kcap \cdot F_2 \) is a vector in that plane that is perpendicular to \( \kcap \). On the other hand \( \kcap \wedge F_1 \) is non-zero only if \( F_1 \) has a non-zero component that does not lie in along the \( \kcap \) direction, but \( \kcap \wedge F_1 \), like \( F_2 \) describes a plane that containing \( \kcap \). This means that having both bivector and vector free variables \( F_2 \) and \( F_1 \) provide more degrees of freedom than required. For example, if \( \BE \) is any vector, and \( F_2 = \kcap \wedge \BE \), then
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:240}
\begin{aligned}
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot F_2
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \cdot \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\lr{
\BE
–
\kcap \lr{ \kcap \cdot \BE }
} \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&=
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\kcap \wedge \BE,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}
which has the form \( \lr{ 1 + \kcap } \lr{ \kcap \wedge F_1 } \), so the solution of the free space Maxwell’s equation can be written
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:planewavesMultivector:260}
\boxed{
F(\Bx, t)
=
\textrm{Re} \lr{
\lr{ 1 + \kcap }
\BE\,
e^{-j \Bk \cdot \Bx + j \omega t}
}
,
}
\end{equation}
where \( \BE \) is any vector for which \( \BE \cdot \Bk = 0 \).

Transverse gauge

November 16, 2016 math and physics play , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , ,

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Jackson [1] has an interesting presentation of the transverse gauge. I’d like to walk through the details of this, but first want to translate the preliminaries to SI units (if I had the 3rd edition I’d not have to do this translation step).

Gauge freedom

The starting point is noting that \( \spacegrad \cdot \BB = 0 \) the magnetic field can be expressed as a curl

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:20}
\BB = \spacegrad \cross \BA.
\end{equation}

Faraday’s law now takes the form
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:40}
\begin{aligned}
0
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{\BB} \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \BE + \PD{t}{} \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } \\
&= \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \BE + \PD{t}{\BA} }.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Because this curl is zero, the interior sum can be expressed as a gradient

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:60}
\BE + \PD{t}{\BA} \equiv -\spacegrad \Phi.
\end{equation}

This can now be substituted into the remaining two Maxwell’s equations.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:80}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \BD &= \rho_v \\
\spacegrad \cross \BH &= \BJ + \PD{t}{\BD} \\
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For Gauss’s law, in simple media, we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:140}
\begin{aligned}
\rho_v
&=
\epsilon \spacegrad \cdot \BE \\
&=
\epsilon \spacegrad \cdot \lr{ -\spacegrad \Phi – \PD{t}{\BA} }
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

For simple media again, the Ampere-Maxwell equation is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:100}
\inv{\mu} \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = \BJ + \epsilon \PD{t}{} \lr{ -\spacegrad \Phi – \PD{t}{\BA} }.
\end{equation}

Expanding \( \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BA } = -\spacegrad^2 \BA + \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA } \) gives
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:120}
-\spacegrad^2 \BA + \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA } + \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} = \mu \BJ – \epsilon \mu \spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}.
\end{equation}

Maxwell’s equations are now reduced to
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:180}
\boxed{
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BA + \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi}} – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} &= -\mu \BJ \\
\spacegrad^2 \Phi + \PD{t}{\spacegrad \cdot \BA} &= -\frac{\rho_v }{\epsilon}.
\end{aligned}
}
\end{equation}

There are two obvious constraints that we can impose
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:200}
\spacegrad \cdot \BA – \epsilon \mu \PD{t}{\Phi} = 0,
\end{equation}

or
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:220}
\spacegrad \cdot \BA = 0.
\end{equation}

The first constraint is the Lorentz gauge, which I’ve played with previously. It happens to be really nice in a relativistic context since, in vacuum with a four-vector potential \( A = (\Phi/c, \BA) \), that is a requirement that the four-divergence of the four-potential vanishes (\( \partial_\mu A^\mu = 0 \)).

Transverse gauge

Jackson identifies the latter constraint as the transverse gauge, which I’m less familiar with. With this gauge selection, we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:260}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA} = -\mu \BJ + \epsilon\mu \spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:280}
\spacegrad^2 \Phi = -\frac{\rho_v }{\epsilon}.
\end{equation}

What’s not obvious is the fact that the irrotational (zero curl) contribution due to \(\Phi\) in \ref{eqn:transverseGauge:260} cancels the corresponding irrotational term from the current. Jackson uses a transverse and longitudinal decomposition of the current, related to the Helmholtz theorem to allude to this.

That decomposition follows from expanding \( \spacegrad^2 J/R \) in two ways using the delta function \( -4 \pi \delta(\Bx – \Bx’) = \spacegrad^2 1/R \) representation, as well as directly

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:300}
\begin{aligned}
– 4 \pi \BJ(\Bx)
&=
\int \spacegrad^2 \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\spacegrad
\int \spacegrad \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\spacegrad \cdot
\int \spacegrad \wedge \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\spacegrad
\int \BJ(\Bx’) \cdot \spacegrad’ \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge
\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
} \\
&=
-\spacegrad
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+\spacegrad
\int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
–
\spacegrad \cross \lr{
\spacegrad \cross
\int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
}
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The first term can be converted to a surface integral

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:320}
-\spacegrad
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
=
-\spacegrad
\int d\BA’ \cdot \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}},
\end{equation}

so provided the currents are either localized or \( \Abs{\BJ}/R \rightarrow 0 \) on an infinite sphere, we can make the identification

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:340}
\BJ(\Bx)
=
-\spacegrad \inv{4 \pi} \int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
+
\spacegrad \cross \spacegrad \cross \inv{4 \pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’
\equiv
\BJ_l +
\BJ_t,
\end{equation}

where \( \spacegrad \cross \BJ_l = 0 \) (irrotational, or longitudinal), whereas \( \spacegrad \cdot \BJ_t = 0 \) (solenoidal or transverse). The irrotational property is clear from inspection, and the transverse property can be verified readily

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:360}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \lr{ \spacegrad \cross \BX } }
&=
-\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad \wedge \BX } } \\
&=
-\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \spacegrad^2 \BX – \spacegrad \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BX } } \\
&=
-\spacegrad \cdot \lr{\spacegrad^2 \BX} + \spacegrad^2 \lr{ \spacegrad \cdot \BX } \\
&= 0.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Since

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:380}
\Phi(\Bx, t)
=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \int \frac{\rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,
\end{equation}

we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:400}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \PD{t}{\Phi}
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{\partial_t \rho_v(\Bx’, t)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\inv{4 \pi \epsilon} \spacegrad \int \frac{-\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\BJ_l}{\epsilon}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This means that the Ampere-Maxwell equation takes the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:transverseGauge:420}
\spacegrad^2 \BA – \epsilon \mu \PDSq{t}{\BA}
= -\mu \BJ + \mu \BJ_l
= -\mu \BJ_t.
\end{equation}

This justifies the transverse in the label transverse gauge.

References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

Calculating the magnetostatic field from the moment

November 14, 2016 math and physics play , , , , , ,

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The vector potential, to first order, for a magnetostatic localized current distribution was found to be

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:20}
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\Bm \cross \Bx}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.
\end{equation}

Initially, I tried to calculate the magnetic field from this, but ran into trouble. Here’s a new try.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:40}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\spacegrad \cross \lr{ \Bm \cross \frac{\Bx}{r^3} } \\
&=
-\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \Bm \wedge \frac{\Bx}{r^3} } \\
&=
-\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
(\Bm \cdot \spacegrad) \frac{\Bx}{r^3}
-\Bm \spacegrad \cdot \frac{\Bx}{r^3}
} \\
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
-\frac{(\Bm \cdot \spacegrad) \Bx}{r^3}
– \lr{ \Bm \cdot \lr{\spacegrad \inv{r^3} }} \Bx
+\Bm (\spacegrad \cdot \Bx) \inv{r^3}
+\Bm \lr{\spacegrad \inv{r^3} } \cdot \Bx
}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Here I’ve used \( \Ba \cross \lr{ \Bb \cross \Bc } = -\Ba \cdot \lr{ \Bb \wedge \Bc } \), and then expanded that with \( \Ba \cdot \lr{ \Bb \wedge \Bc } = (\Ba \cdot \Bb) \Bc – (\Ba \cdot \Bc) \Bb \). Since one of these vectors is the gradient, care must be taken to have it operate on the appropriate terms in such an expansion.

Since we have \( \spacegrad \cdot \Bx = 3 \), \( (\Bm \cdot \spacegrad) \Bx = \Bm \), and \( \spacegrad 1/r^n = -n \Bx/r^{n+2} \), this reduces to

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticFieldFromMoment:60}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\lr{
– \frac{\Bm}{r^3}
+ 3 \frac{(\Bm \cdot \Bx) \Bx}{r^5} %
+ 3 \Bm \inv{r^3}
-3 \Bm \frac{\Bx}{r^5} \cdot \Bx
} \\
&=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi}
\frac{3 (\Bm \cdot \ncap) \ncap -\Bm}{r^3},
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which is the desired result.

Magnetostatic force and torque

October 18, 2016 math and physics play , , , , , , ,

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In Jackson [1], the following equations for the vector potential, magnetostatic force and torque are derived

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:20}
\Bm = \inv{2} \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:40}
\BF = \spacegrad( \Bm \cdot \BB ),
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:60}
\BN = \Bm \cross \BB,
\end{equation}

where \( \BB \) is an applied external magnetic field and \( \Bm \) is the magnetic dipole for the current in question. These results (and a similar one derived earlier for the vector potential \( \BA \)) all follow from
an analysis of localized current densities \( \BJ \), evaluated far enough away from the current sources.

For the force and torque, the starting point for the force is one that had me puzzled a bit. Namely

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80}
\BF = \int \BJ(\Bx) \cross \BB(\Bx) d^3 x
\end{equation}

This is clearly the continuum generalization of the point particle Lorentz force equation, which for \( \BE = 0 \) is:

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:100}
\BF = q \Bv \cross \BB
\end{equation}

For the point particle, this is the force on the particle when it is in the external field \( BB \). i.e. this is the force at the position of the particle. My question is what does it mean to sum all the forces on the charge distribution over all space.
How can a force be applied over all, as opposed to a force applied at a single point, or against a surface?

In the special case of a localized current density, this makes some sense. Considering the other half of the force equation \( \BF = \ddt{}\int \rho_m \Bv dV \), where \( \rho_m \) here is mass density of the charged particles making up the continuous current distribution. The other half of this \( \BF = m\Ba \) equation is also an average phenomena, so we have an average of sorts on both the field contribution to the force equation and the mass contribution to the force equation. There is probably a centre-of-mass and centre-of-current density interpretation that would make a bit more sense of this continuum force description.

It’s kind of funny how you can work through all the detailed mathematical steps in a book like Jackson, but then go right back to the beginning and say “Hey, what does that even mean”?

Force

Moving on from the pondering of the meaning of the equation being manipulated, let’s do the easy part, the derivation of the results that Jackson comes up with.

Writing out \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:80} in coordinates

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:320}
\BF = \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \int J_j B_k d^3 x.
\end{equation}

To first order, a slowly varying (external) magnetic field can be expanded around a point of interest

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:120}
\BB(\Bx) = \BB(\Bx_0) + \lr{ \Bx – \Bx_0 } \cdot \spacegrad \BB,
\end{equation}

where the directional derivative is evaluated at the point \( \Bx_0 \) after the gradient operation. Setting the origin at this point \( \Bx_0 \) gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:340}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\lr{
\int J_j(\Bx’) B_k(0) d^3 x’
+
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’
} \\
&=
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\Bk_0 \int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
+
\epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i
\int J_j(\Bx’) (\Bx’ \cdot \spacegrad) B_k(0) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

We found

earlier
that the first integral can be written as a divergence

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:140}
\int J_j(\Bx’) d^3 x’
=
\int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) x_j’ } dV’,
\end{equation}

which is zero when the integration surface is outside of the current localization region. We also found

that

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
= -\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ = \Bm \cross \Bx.
\end{equation}

so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:180}
\begin{aligned}
\int (\spacegrad B_k(0) \cdot \Bx’) J_j
&= -\inv{2} \lr{ \spacegrad B_k(0) \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ}_j \\
&= \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:200}
\begin{aligned}
\BF
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross (\spacegrad B_k(0)) }_j \\
&= \epsilon_{ijk} \Be_i \lr{ \Bm \cross \spacegrad }_j B_k(0) \\
&= (\Bm \cross \spacegrad) \cross \BB(0) \\
&= -\BB(0) \cross (\Bm \cross \lspacegrad) \\
&= (\BB(0) \cdot \Bm) \lspacegrad – (\BB \cdot \lspacegrad) \Bm \\
&= \spacegrad (\BB(0) \cdot \Bm) – \Bm (\spacegrad \cdot \BB(0)).
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The second term is killed by the magnetic Gauss’s law, leaving to first order

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:220}
\BF = \spacegrad \lr{\Bm \cdot \BB}.
\end{equation}

Torque

For the torque we have a similar quandary at the starting point. About what point is a continuum torque integral of the following form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:240}
\BN = \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(\Bx’)) d^3 x’?
\end{equation}

Ignoring that detail again, assuming the answer has something to do with the centre of mass and parallel axis theorem, we can proceed with a constant approximation of the magnetic field

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:260}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&= \int \Bx’ \cross (\BJ(\Bx’) \cross \BB(0)) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) \BB(0) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\BB(0) \int (\Bx’ \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)) d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Jackson’s trick for killing the first integral is to transform it into a divergence by evaluating

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:280}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot \lr{ \BJ \Abs{\Bx}^2 }
&=
(\spacegrad \cdot \BJ) \Abs{\Bx}^2
+
\BJ \cdot \spacegrad \Abs{\Bx}^2 \\
&=
\BJ \cdot \Be_i \partial_i x_m x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Be_i \delta_{im} x_m \\
&=
2 \BJ \cdot \Bx,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:300}
\begin{aligned}
\BN
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \int \spacegrad’ \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’ \\
&=
-\inv{2} \BB(0) \oint \Bn \cdot \lr{ \BJ(\Bx’) \Abs{\Bx’}^2 } d^3 x’
+\int (\Bx’ \cdot \BB(0)) \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Again, the localized current density assumption kills the surface integral. The second integral can be evaluated with \ref{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:160}, so to first order we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magnetostaticsJacksonNotesForceAndTorque:360}
\BN
=
\Bm \cross \BB.
\end{equation}

References

[1] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.

Magnetic moment for a localized magnetostatic current

October 13, 2016 math and physics play , , , , , , , , ,

[Click here for a PDF of this post with nicer formatting]

Motivation.

I was once again reading my Jackson [2]. This time I found that his presentation of magnetic moment didn’t really make sense to me. Here’s my own pass through it, filling in a number of details. As I did last time, I’ll also translate into SI units as I go.

Vector potential.

The Biot-Savart expression for the magnetic field can be factored into a curl expression using the usual tricks

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:20}
\begin{aligned}
\BB
&= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’) \cross (\Bx – \Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}^3} d^3 x’ \\
&= -\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \int \BJ(\Bx’) \cross \spacegrad \inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’ \\
&= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \spacegrad \cross \int \frac{\BJ(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so the vector potential, through its curl, defines the magnetic field \( \BB = \spacegrad \cross \BA \) is given by

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:40}
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}} d^3 x’.
\end{equation}

If the current source is localized (zero outside of some finite region), then there will always be a region for which \( \Abs{\Bx} \gg \Abs{\Bx’} \), so the denominator yields to Taylor expansion

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:60}
\begin{aligned}
\inv{\Abs{\Bx – \Bx’}}
&=
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} \lr{1 + \frac{\Abs{\Bx’}^2}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} – 2 \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} }^{-1/2} \\
&\approx
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} \lr{ 1 + \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^2} } \\
&=
\inv{\Abs{\Bx}} + \frac{\Bx \cdot \Bx’}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so the vector potential, far enough away from the current source is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:80}
\BA(\Bx)
=
\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’
+\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{(\Bx \cdot \Bx’)J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}^3} d^3 x’.
\end{equation}

Jackson uses a sneaky trick to show that the first integral is killed for a localized source. That trick appears to be based on evaluating the following divergence

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:100}
\begin{aligned}
\spacegrad \cdot (\BJ(\Bx) x_i)
&=
(\spacegrad \cdot \BJ) x_i
+
(\spacegrad x_i) \cdot \BJ \\
&=
(\Be_k \partial_k x_i) \cdot\BJ \\
&=
\delta_{ki} J_k \\
&=
J_i.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Note that this made use of the fact that \( \spacegrad \cdot \BJ = 0 \) for magnetostatics. This provides a way to rewrite the current density as a divergence

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:120}
\begin{aligned}
\int \frac{J(\Bx’)}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’
&=
\Be_i \int \frac{\spacegrad’ \cdot (x_i’ \BJ(\Bx’))}{\Abs{\Bx}} d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{\Be_i}{\Abs{\Bx}} \int \spacegrad’ \cdot (x_i’ \BJ(\Bx’)) d^3 x’ \\
&=
\frac{1}{\Abs{\Bx}} \oint \Bx’ (d\Ba \cdot \BJ(\Bx’)).
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

When \( \BJ \) is localized, this is zero provided we pick the integration surface for the volume outside of that localization region.

It is now desired to rewrite \( \int \Bx \cdot \Bx’ \BJ \) as a triple cross product since the dot product of such a triple cross product has exactly this term in it

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:140}
\begin{aligned}
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
&=
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
–
\int (\Bx \cdot \BJ) \Bx’ \\
&=
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
–
\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:160}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’.
\end{equation}

To get of this second term, the next sneaky trick is to consider the following divergence

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:180}
\begin{aligned}
\oint d\Ba’ \cdot (\BJ(\Bx’) x_i’ x_j’)
&=
\int dV’ \spacegrad’ \cdot (\BJ(\Bx’) x_i’ x_j’) \\
&=
\int dV’ (\spacegrad’ \cdot \BJ)
+
\int dV’ \BJ \cdot \spacegrad’ (x_i’ x_j’) \\
&=
\int dV’ J_k \cdot \lr{ x_i’ \partial_k x_j’ + x_j’ \partial_k x_i’ } \\
&=
\int dV’ \lr{J_k x_i’ \delta_{kj} + J_k x_j’ \delta_{ki}} \\
&=
\int dV’ \lr{J_j x_i’ + J_i x_j’}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

The surface integral is once again zero, which means that we have an antisymmetric relationship in integrals of the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:200}
\int J_j x_i’ = -\int J_i x_j’.
\end{equation}

Now we can use the tensor algebra trick of writing \( y = (y + y)/2 \),

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:220}
\begin{aligned}
\int (\Bx \cdot \Bx’) \BJ
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\Be_k x_i \int J_i x_k’ \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int \lr{ J_i x_k’ + J_i x_k’ } \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int \lr{ J_i x_k’ – J_k x_i’ } \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Be_k x_i \int (\BJ \cross \Bx’)_j \epsilon_{ikj} \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
–
\inv{2} \epsilon_{kij} \Be_k x_i \int (\BJ \cross \Bx’)_j \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
–
\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \BJ \cross \Bx’ \\
&=
– \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ
+
\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ \\
&=
-\inv{2} \Bx \cross \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:240}
\BA(\Bx) \approx \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi \Abs{\Bx}^3} \lr{ -\frac{\Bx}{2} } \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’.
\end{equation}

Letting

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:260}
\boxed{
\Bm = \inv{2} \int \Bx’ \cross \BJ(\Bx’) d^3 x’,
}
\end{equation}

the far field approximation of the vector potential is
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:280}
\boxed{
\BA(\Bx) = \frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \frac{\Bm \cross \Bx}{\Abs{\Bx}^3}.
}
\end{equation}

Note that when the current is restricted to an infintisimally thin loop, the magnetic moment reduces to

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:magneticMomentJackson:300}
\Bm(\Bx) = \frac{I}{2} \int \Bx \cross d\Bl’.
\end{equation}

Refering to [1] (pr. 1.60), this can be seen to be \( I \) times the “vector-area” integral.

References

[1] David Jeffrey Griffiths and Reed College. Introduction to electrodynamics. Prentice hall Upper Saddle River, NJ, 3rd edition, 1999.

[2] JD Jackson. Classical Electrodynamics. John Wiley and Sons, 2nd edition, 1975.